Nursing Elites

1. What information should the nurse provide a client who has undergone cryosurgery for stage 1A cervical cancer?

• A. Expect heavy, watery vaginal discharge for 3 to 6 weeks.
• B. Use a tampon instead of a sanitary napkin.
• C. Report any severe cramping immediately.
• D. Avoid sexual intercourse for 3 to 6 weeks.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After cryosurgery for stage 1A cervical cancer, clients should avoid sexual intercourse for 3 to 6 weeks to reduce the risk of infection. Heavy, watery vaginal discharge is expected but not the focus of post-procedure instructions. Using tampons is contraindicated as they can introduce bacteria into the healing cervix. While reporting severe cramping is important, avoiding sexual intercourse is the priority to prevent complications.

2. An elderly client with a history of falls is being discharged from the hospital. Which intervention should the home health nurse implement to reduce the client's risk of falling at home?

• A. Install grab bars in the bathroom
• B. Provide a walker for ambulation
• C. Educate the client on fall prevention strategies
• D. Refer the client to a physical therapist

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Installing grab bars in the bathroom is crucial to reducing the elderly client's risk of falling at home. Grab bars provide physical support and stability, especially in areas like the bathroom where slips and falls are common among older adults. While providing a walker for ambulation (Choice B) can assist with mobility, it may not directly address the environmental hazards at home. Educating the client on fall prevention strategies (Choice C) is important but may not be sufficient if the physical environment is not modified to reduce fall risks. Referring the client to a physical therapist (Choice D) may help improve strength and balance but does not directly address the immediate environmental risk of falling at home.

3. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with severe epigastric pain. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Nausea and vomiting.
• B. Hematemesis.
• C. Melena.
• D. Rebound tenderness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease presenting with severe epigastric pain, the finding that requires immediate intervention is rebound tenderness. Rebound tenderness can indicate peritonitis, a serious condition that necessitates immediate medical attention. Nausea and vomiting, hematemesis, and melena are also concerning symptoms in a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease, but they do not signify the urgency of intervention as rebound tenderness does.

4. The healthcare professional is developing a program to promote healthy eating habits in a community with high rates of obesity. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?

• A. distributing educational pamphlets about nutrition
• B. offering cooking classes that focus on healthy recipes
• C. launching a social media campaign about the risks of obesity
• D. providing free health screenings at community events

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Offering cooking classes that focus on healthy recipes is the most effective strategy among the choices provided. These classes not only provide valuable knowledge about nutrition but also offer hands-on experience in preparing healthy meals. This practical approach can significantly impact participants' behavior and increase the likelihood of them adopting healthier eating habits. Distributing educational pamphlets may not have the same level of engagement and interaction as cooking classes. A social media campaign, while informative, may not result in direct behavioral changes. Providing free health screenings, though beneficial for early detection, does not directly address the promotion of healthy eating habits, unlike the hands-on approach of cooking classes.

5. A client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Continue the heparin infusion as prescribed.
• B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate.
• C. Increase the heparin infusion rate.
• D. Stop the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. In this case, the heparin infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further anticoagulation and an increased bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to discuss alternative anticoagulation strategies or interventions. Continuing heparin therapy without action could lead to severe bleeding complications. Decreasing or increasing the heparin infusion rate would exacerbate the risk of bleeding, making options A, B, and C incorrect.

Similar Questions