Nursing Elites

1. What information should the nurse provide a client who has undergone cryosurgery for stage 1A cervical cancer?

• A. Expect heavy, watery vaginal discharge for 3 to 6 weeks.
• B. Use a tampon instead of a sanitary napkin.
• C. Report any severe cramping immediately.
• D. Avoid sexual intercourse for 3 to 6 weeks.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After cryosurgery for stage 1A cervical cancer, clients should avoid sexual intercourse for 3 to 6 weeks to reduce the risk of infection. Heavy, watery vaginal discharge is expected but not the focus of post-procedure instructions. Using tampons is contraindicated as they can introduce bacteria into the healing cervix. While reporting severe cramping is important, avoiding sexual intercourse is the priority to prevent complications.

2. A client who has been receiving chemotherapy for cancer has a platelet count of 20,000/mm3. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Apply ice packs to bruised areas.
• B. Encourage frequent oral hygiene.
• C. Avoid invasive procedures.
• D. Place the client in a private room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a platelet count of 20,000/mm3 due to chemotherapy is to avoid invasive procedures. Chemotherapy can cause a decrease in platelet count, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. By avoiding invasive procedures, the nurse helps reduce the risk of bleeding complications. Applying ice packs to bruised areas (Choice A) may further increase the risk of bleeding due to the pressure and potential trauma to the skin. Encouraging frequent oral hygiene (Choice B) is important for overall health but does not directly address the risk of bleeding associated with a low platelet count. Placing the client in a private room (Choice D) is not directly related to managing the platelet count and risk of bleeding; it is more about privacy and infection control, which are important but not the priority in this scenario.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 200/120 mm Hg. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Metoprolol (Lopressor).
• B. Furosemide (Lasix).
• C. Lisinopril (Zestril).
• D. Nitroprusside (Nipride).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Nitroprusside (Nipride). In this scenario of severe hypertension (200/120 mm Hg), a hypertensive emergency is present, requiring rapid reduction of blood pressure. Nitroprusside is a vasodilator that acts quickly to lower blood pressure in such emergencies. Options A, B, and C are incorrect: A) Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that lowers blood pressure but is not indicated for hypertensive emergencies requiring rapid reduction. B) Furosemide is a diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not rapidly lower blood pressure. C) Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used for long-term management of hypertension, not for immediate reduction in hypertensive emergencies.

4. The nurse is teaching a group of new mothers about infant care. Which topic should the nurse prioritize?

• A. signs of infant dehydration
• B. proper diaper changing techniques
• C. immunization schedule
• D. breastfeeding positions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: signs of infant dehydration. Recognizing signs of dehydration is crucial for ensuring the health and well-being of infants. Dehydration can be life-threatening for infants if not addressed promptly. While proper diaper changing techniques, immunization schedules, and breastfeeding positions are also important topics in infant care, being able to identify signs of dehydration takes precedence as it requires immediate attention to prevent serious consequences.

5. During a 2-week postoperative follow-up home visit, a female client who had gastric bypass surgery exhibits abdominal tenderness, shoulder pain, and describes feelings of malaise. Her vital signs are: T 101.8, BP 100/50, HR 104, and RR 18. Which action should the RN take?

• A. have the client transported via ambulance to the hospital
• B. recheck the client's vital signs in 30 minutes
• C. instruct the client to drive to the hospital for admission
• D. assess the client's current symptoms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client is presenting with signs of a potential postoperative complication, such as fever, low blood pressure, and tachycardia, which could indicate sepsis or another serious issue. These symptoms require immediate hospital evaluation and management. Option B of rechecking vital signs in 30 minutes could delay crucial intervention in a potentially life-threatening situation. Option C is unsafe as the client should not drive herself due to her condition. Option D is vague and does not address the urgency of the situation.

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