a client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time aptt of 90 seconds which action should the nurse ta
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Community Health

1. A client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. In this case, the heparin infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further anticoagulation and an increased bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to discuss alternative anticoagulation strategies or interventions. Continuing heparin therapy without action could lead to severe bleeding complications. Decreasing or increasing the heparin infusion rate would exacerbate the risk of bleeding, making options A, B, and C incorrect.

2. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL is an indicator of effective erythropoietin therapy as it shows an increase in red blood cell production. Reticulocyte count (choice B) reflects the bone marrow's response to anemia but does not directly confirm the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Blood pressure (choice C) and serum ferritin level (choice D) are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy for chronic kidney disease.

3. During a home visit, the nurse observes an elderly client with disabilities slip and fall. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first after an elderly client with disabilities slips and falls is to check the client for lacerations or fractures. This is crucial to assess the extent of injuries and provide appropriate medical attention promptly. Option A, providing orange juice, is not a priority in this situation and does not address the potential injuries. While calling 911 (Option B) may be necessary, assessing for immediate injuries takes precedence. Assessing the client's blood sugar level (Option D) is not the immediate priority after a fall unless there is a specific indication or suspicion of hypoglycemia.

4. Which annual screening should the nurse include when planning eye health programs at a preschool?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: visual acuity. Screening for visual acuity is essential in preschoolers to identify any vision issues early on, such as nearsightedness or farsightedness, which may require corrective lenses or other interventions. Red light reflex (choice B) is a method used to assess the eyes for abnormalities, but it is not typically included in routine preschool eye health screenings. Conjunctivitis (choice C) is an eye infection and not a screening test. Glaucoma (choice D) is a condition more commonly associated with adults and the elderly, making it less relevant for preschool eye health programs.

5. A school nurse is developing a program to address bullying among students. Which component is most important to include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Training for teachers is the most important component to include in addressing bullying among students. Teachers play a crucial role in identifying, intervening, and preventing bullying incidents. By providing teachers with training on how to handle bullying, they can effectively address such situations, support victims, and educate students on appropriate behavior. While education on the effects of bullying (Choice A) is important, teachers need practical skills to intervene. Peer mentoring programs (Choice C) and zero-tolerance policies (Choice D) are valuable but may not be as effective without teachers being equipped to address bullying incidents directly.

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