a client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time aptt of 90 seconds which action should the nurse ta
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Community Health

1. A client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. In this case, the heparin infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further anticoagulation and an increased bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to discuss alternative anticoagulation strategies or interventions. Continuing heparin therapy without action could lead to severe bleeding complications. Decreasing or increasing the heparin infusion rate would exacerbate the risk of bleeding, making options A, B, and C incorrect.

2. A public health nurse is planning a smoking cessation program for a local community. Which component is most important to include in the program?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important component to include in a smoking cessation program is strategies for coping with withdrawal symptoms. Withdrawal symptoms are a significant barrier to quitting smoking, and providing effective coping strategies can greatly increase the program's success. Choice A, providing information on the health risks of smoking, may be important but addressing withdrawal symptoms is more crucial. Testimonials from former smokers (Choice C) and distribution of nicotine replacement therapy (Choice D) are helpful but not as essential as addressing withdrawal symptoms directly.

3. The healthcare provider is inspecting the external eye structures of a client. Which finding is a normal racial variation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The slightly yellow color of the sclera is a normal racial variation found in the African-American population. Blue sclerae (Choice A) are associated with osteogenesis imperfecta, not a normal racial variation. Brown macules on the sclerae (Choice B) may indicate issues like melanoma or melanosis but are not a normal racial variation. Conjunctival pallor (Choice D) suggests anemia or decreased blood flow but is not a normal racial variation.

4. The client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving discharge instructions. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Drinking at least 3 liters of fluid each day may be contraindicated for a client with CHF due to the risk of fluid overload. This can exacerbate heart failure symptoms and lead to complications. Options A, B, and C are all appropriate statements that demonstrate understanding of managing CHF and seeking appropriate medical attention when needed.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL indicates that the therapy is effective in managing anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice B, a reticulocyte count of 1%, is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is important to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice D, a serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL, is related to iron stores in the body and may be monitored during erythropoietin therapy but does not directly reflect the therapy's effectiveness in increasing red blood cell production.

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