Nursing Elites

1. A client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Continue the heparin infusion as prescribed.
• B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate.
• C. Increase the heparin infusion rate.
• D. Stop the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. In this case, the heparin infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further anticoagulation and an increased bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to discuss alternative anticoagulation strategies or interventions. Continuing heparin therapy without action could lead to severe bleeding complications. Decreasing or increasing the heparin infusion rate would exacerbate the risk of bleeding, making options A, B, and C incorrect.

2. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new colostomy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid foods that cause gas.
• B. I will change my colostomy bag every week.
• C. I will use a skin barrier to protect the skin around the stoma.
• D. I will empty my colostomy bag when it is one-third full.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Changing the colostomy bag every week is not sufficient; it should be changed more frequently to prevent leakage and skin irritation. Option A is correct as avoiding foods that cause gas can help manage colostomy-related symptoms. Option C is correct as using a skin barrier helps protect the skin around the stoma. Option D is correct as emptying the colostomy bag when it is one-third full helps prevent leakage and discomfort.

3. The client with the sexually transmitted disease HPV reports having had prior sexually transmitted infections. Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. Emphasize that using safe sex practices removes the risk of transmission.
• B. Instruct the client of the importance of notifying sexual partners.
• C. Reassure that complications will not occur if infection is treated.
• D. Provide counseling that most contraceptives prevent against infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Instructing the client about the importance of notifying sexual partners is crucial when dealing with sexually transmitted infections like HPV. This helps prevent the spread of the infection to others and promotes responsible sexual behavior. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while using safe sex practices is important, notifying sexual partners is more immediate and directly related to preventing the spread of the infection. Reassuring about complications and discussing contraceptives do not address the immediate need to notify partners.

4. When visiting a community health clinic, a client's blood pressure is measured at 146/94. What information should the nurse provide the client?

• A. Participate in an exercise program for 6 weeks
• B. Obtain blood pressure daily for 2 weeks
• C. Increase dietary intake of omega-3 fatty acids
• D. Begin a low sodium diet immediately

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to begin a low sodium diet immediately. High sodium intake can contribute to elevated blood pressure levels. By reducing sodium intake, blood pressure can be effectively lowered. Option A, participating in an exercise program, is beneficial for overall health but may not provide immediate impact on blood pressure. Option B, obtaining blood pressure daily for 2 weeks, may not address the underlying cause or provide immediate intervention. Option C, increasing dietary intake of omega-3 fatty acids, though beneficial for heart health, may not have an immediate impact on lowering blood pressure compared to reducing sodium intake.

5. A male client who has been taking propranolol (Inderal) for 18 months tells the nurse the healthcare provider discontinued the medication because his blood pressure has been normal for the past three months. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Abruptly stop the medication.
• B. Continue the medication at the same dose.
• C. Ask the healthcare provider about tapering the drug dose over the next week.
• D. Increase the dose of the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Gradually tapering the dose over one to two weeks should be recommended to prevent rebound tachycardia, hypertension, and ventricular dysrhythmias.

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