a client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time aptt of 90 seconds which action should the nurse ta
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Community Health

1. A client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. In this case, the heparin infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further anticoagulation and an increased bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to discuss alternative anticoagulation strategies or interventions. Continuing heparin therapy without action could lead to severe bleeding complications. Decreasing or increasing the heparin infusion rate would exacerbate the risk of bleeding, making options A, B, and C incorrect.

2. The healthcare provider is planning a health education session for new parents on infant care. Which topic should be prioritized?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Recognizing signs of infant dehydration is crucial for ensuring the health and well-being of infants. Dehydration can be life-threatening for infants if not addressed promptly. Proper diaper changing techniques, while important for hygiene, can be learned incrementally. The immunization schedule and breastfeeding positions are also essential topics, but identifying signs of dehydration takes precedence as it requires immediate attention to prevent serious complications.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a new arteriovenous fistula in the left arm for hemodialysis. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Warmth and redness in the client's arm suggest infection or thrombosis of the arteriovenous fistula, which requires immediate intervention to prevent complications. A thrill (A) is a normal finding in a functional arteriovenous fistula, indicating good blood flow. A bruit (C) is also a normal finding on auscultation of a functioning arteriovenous fistula, indicating proper blood flow. The absence of a bruit (D) may indicate a non-functioning fistula, which would need further evaluation but does not require immediate intervention as warmth and redness do.

4. An 80-year-old client is given morphine sulfate for postoperative pain. Which concomitant medication should the nurse question that poses a potential development of urinary retention in this geriatric client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tricyclic antidepressants. Drugs with anticholinergic properties, such as tricyclic antidepressants, can exacerbate urinary retention associated with opioids in older clients. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents (Choice A) do not typically cause urinary retention. Antihistamines (Choice B) may cause urinary retention but are not the primary concern in this scenario. Antibiotics (Choice D) are not associated with an increased risk of urinary retention compared to tricyclic antidepressants.

5. The nurse is developing a program to educate parents on the importance of childhood immunizations. Which topic should be prioritized?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: the benefits of immunizations. Emphasizing the benefits of immunizations helps parents understand the importance of vaccines in protecting their children from preventable diseases. This choice should be prioritized as it focuses on the positive outcomes of immunizations, which can motivate parents to vaccinate their children. Choices B, C, and D are not the top priority because while it's important to address potential side effects, the immunization schedule, and comforting children during vaccinations, the main focus should be on highlighting the benefits to encourage parents to make informed decisions regarding their child's immunizations.

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