HESI RN
HESI Community Health
1. A client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Continue the heparin infusion as prescribed.
- B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate.
- C. Increase the heparin infusion rate.
- D. Stop the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. In this case, the heparin infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further anticoagulation and an increased bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to discuss alternative anticoagulation strategies or interventions. Continuing heparin therapy without action could lead to severe bleeding complications. Decreasing or increasing the heparin infusion rate would exacerbate the risk of bleeding, making options A, B, and C incorrect.
2. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is admitted with chest pain. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
- B. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
- C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
- D. Chest pain radiating to the left arm.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chest pain radiating to the left arm is a classic symptom of a myocardial infarction (heart attack) in individuals with coronary artery disease. This finding indicates that the heart muscle may not be receiving adequate oxygen, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage or complications. The other assessment findings (heart rate of 90 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg) are within normal limits and do not suggest an acute, life-threatening condition like myocardial infarction.
3. During a home health visit, the nurse notices that an older male client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is wearing loose cloth slippers. The client reports that he cannot comfortably wear other shoes because his toenails get in the way. The nurse inspects the client's feet and finds long thick nails that curl down under some of the toes. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. demonstrate proper foot care to the client and family
- B. have a home health aide assist the client with hygiene weekly
- C. schedule an appointment for the client with a podiatrist
- D. trim the client's toenails gradually over several visits
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Scheduling an appointment with a podiatrist is the most appropriate action in this scenario. For a client with long thick nails that curl under the toes, professional foot care by a podiatrist is necessary to prevent complications, especially in a client with diabetes mellitus. Demonstrating proper foot care (choice A) may not address the immediate need for nail trimming. Having a home health aide assist with hygiene weekly (choice B) may not be sufficient for managing the client's toenail issue effectively. Trimming the client's toenails gradually over several visits (choice D) should be performed by a professional like a podiatrist to avoid potential complications.
4. The nurse is developing a workshop on cancer prevention for a group of adults at a wellness bar. Which recommendation should the nurse include in the workshop?
- A. Know the four warning signs of cancer
- B. Maintain a healthy weight and exercise regularly
- C. Refrain from alcohol
- D. Obtain at least 6 to 10 hours of sleep per night
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Maintaining a healthy weight and exercising regularly are crucial recommendations in cancer prevention. These habits help reduce the risk of developing cancer by promoting overall health and reducing factors associated with cancer development. Knowing the warning signs of cancer (Choice A) is important for early detection but does not directly prevent cancer. While refraining from alcohol (Choice C) is beneficial for some cancers, it is not as universally applicable as maintaining a healthy weight and exercising. Getting adequate sleep (Choice D) is essential for overall health but is not as directly linked to cancer prevention as maintaining a healthy weight and regular exercise.
5. An 80-year-old client is given morphine sulfate for postoperative pain. Which concomitant medication should the nurse question that poses a potential development of urinary retention in this geriatric client?
- A. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents.
- B. Antihistamines.
- C. Tricyclic antidepressants.
- D. Antibiotics.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tricyclic antidepressants. Drugs with anticholinergic properties, such as tricyclic antidepressants, can exacerbate urinary retention associated with opioids in older clients. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents (Choice A) do not typically cause urinary retention. Antihistamines (Choice B) may cause urinary retention but are not the primary concern in this scenario. Antibiotics (Choice D) are not associated with an increased risk of urinary retention compared to tricyclic antidepressants.
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