Nursing Elites

1. A client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Continue the heparin infusion as prescribed.
• B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate.
• C. Increase the heparin infusion rate.
• D. Stop the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. In this case, the heparin infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further anticoagulation and an increased bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to discuss alternative anticoagulation strategies or interventions. Continuing heparin therapy without action could lead to severe bleeding complications. Decreasing or increasing the heparin infusion rate would exacerbate the risk of bleeding, making options A, B, and C incorrect.

2. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL.
• B. Serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L.
• C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg.
• D. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours indicates oliguria, which is a concerning sign of decreased renal perfusion and potential renal failure. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further deterioration of kidney function.\n\nChoice A (Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL) is elevated but not the most urgent concern in this scenario. Choice B (Serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L) reflects metabolic acidosis, which is expected in DKA but does not require immediate intervention. Choice C (Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg) is slightly elevated but not acutely concerning in the context of DKA.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which finding supports this diagnosis?

• A. Positive Homan's sign.
• B. Unilateral leg swelling.
• C. Bilateral calf pain.
• D. Redness and warmth in the affected leg.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Redness and warmth in the affected leg. These are classic signs of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and support the diagnosis. Choice A, Positive Homan's sign, is an outdated and unreliable test for DVT, so it is not the best choice. Choice B, Unilateral leg swelling, can be seen in DVT but is less specific compared to redness and warmth. Choice C, Bilateral calf pain, is not a typical finding in DVT, as the pain in DVT is usually unilateral.

4. Who is likely to have the most influence on these women's perceptions about their children's healthcare needs?

• A. husbands
• B. clinic healthcare provider
• C. older females
• D. tribal chief

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In many cultures, older women, such as grandmothers or aunts, hold significant influence over health-related decisions and practices within the family. They are often the ones consulted for advice on healthcare matters concerning children. Husbands (choice A) may have influence in other areas, but when it comes to healthcare decisions for children, older females are typically more influential. Clinic healthcare providers (choice B) may offer guidance, but the influence of older females within the community is usually stronger. Tribal chiefs (choice D) may hold authority but might not be as directly involved in individual healthcare decisions within families as older females.

5. During a repeat home visit to see an 84-year-old widow, the nurse discovers that the client is unkempt, smells of stale urine, and does not recognize her neighbors or the nurse. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Call the pharmacy to determine what medications she is taking
• B. Seek the family's assistance in taking care of the client
• C. Complete a physical and mental exam on the client
• D. Call the adult protective services to obtain emergency nursing home placement

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should prioritize completing a physical and mental exam on the client. This action is crucial to assess the client's health status comprehensively and identify any underlying issues contributing to her unkempt appearance, odor of stale urine, and confusion. Calling the pharmacy to determine medications (Choice A) may be important but is not the immediate priority. Seeking family assistance (Choice B) can be helpful, but the client's condition requires a thorough assessment first. While adult protective services (Choice D) may be necessary in the future, the immediate action should be to assess the client's physical and mental health status.

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