a client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time aptt of 90 seconds which action should the nurse ta
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Community Health

1. A client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. In this case, the heparin infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further anticoagulation and an increased bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to discuss alternative anticoagulation strategies or interventions. Continuing heparin therapy without action could lead to severe bleeding complications. Decreasing or increasing the heparin infusion rate would exacerbate the risk of bleeding, making options A, B, and C incorrect.

2. A female client makes routine visits to a neighborhood community health center. The nurse notes that this client often presents with facial bruising, particularly around the eyes. The nurse discusses prevention of domestic violence with the client even though the client does not admit to it. What level of prevention has the nurse applied in this situation?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse has applied primary prevention in this situation. Primary prevention involves efforts to prevent the occurrence of domestic violence before it starts, even if the client does not admit to the abuse. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and intervention to reduce the harm caused by violence that is already occurring. Tertiary prevention involves actions taken to rehabilitate and support individuals who have experienced domestic violence. Health promotion encompasses a broader approach aimed at improving overall health and well-being, which may include education on domestic violence prevention but is not specific to this scenario.

3. The school nurse is developing an individualized healthcare plan for a student with type 1 diabetes. Which component is most important to include in the plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: a schedule for blood glucose monitoring. Regular blood glucose monitoring is essential in managing type 1 diabetes as it helps in monitoring blood sugar levels, adjusting treatment plans, and preventing complications such as hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia. Choice B, a list of low-carbohydrate snacks, while important for managing blood sugar levels, is not as critical as consistent blood glucose monitoring. Choice C, a contact list of healthcare providers, though important for emergency situations, is not the most crucial component in managing daily care. Choice D, a log for recording insulin administration, is valuable for tracking insulin doses but does not directly address the immediate need for monitoring blood glucose levels.

4. A community health nurse is developing a program to increase physical activity among adults in the community. Which intervention is most likely to be successful?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Organizing free community exercise classes is the most likely successful intervention as it provides a structured and accessible opportunity for adults to engage in physical activity. This choice directly offers a practical solution by providing a regular and organized setting for individuals to participate in physical activity. Distributing flyers about the benefits of exercise, while informative, may not lead to actual participation. Partnering with local gyms to offer discounts relies on individuals taking the initiative to sign up for gym memberships, which may not be feasible for everyone. Hosting a health fair with information booths is informative but may not directly address the need for increased physical activity among adults in the community.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the therapy is effective?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 2.5 indicates that warfarin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with atrial fibrillation. A lower INR (such as 1.0) would suggest subtherapeutic levels, risking blood clots. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are not specific to monitoring warfarin therapy.

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