a client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time aptt of 90 seconds which action should the nurse ta
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Community Health

1. A client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. In this case, the heparin infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further anticoagulation and an increased bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to discuss alternative anticoagulation strategies or interventions. Continuing heparin therapy without action could lead to severe bleeding complications. Decreasing or increasing the heparin infusion rate would exacerbate the risk of bleeding, making options A, B, and C incorrect.

2. The healthcare professional is providing education on healthy eating habits to a group of adolescents. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Involving adolescents in meal planning and preparation is a more effective strategy as it actively engages them in the learning process. This approach allows adolescents to have hands-on experience, make informed choices, and develop a sense of ownership over their dietary decisions. Lecturing about dangers or showing documentaries may not be as engaging or interactive, making it less likely for adolescents to retain and apply the information provided. Distributing pamphlets can be informative but lacks the interactive and experiential aspect that involving them in meal planning and preparation offers.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected myocardial infarction. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a critical sign that can indicate heart failure or pulmonary edema, conditions that require immediate intervention in a client with a suspected myocardial infarction. Chest pain radiating to the left arm is a classic symptom of a myocardial infarction but may not necessitate immediate intervention compared to severe shortness of breath. Nausea and vomiting can be present in myocardial infarction but are not as urgent as shortness of breath. Diaphoresis, or sweating, is a common symptom of a myocardial infarction but may not be as immediately concerning as significant shortness of breath.

4. The client, who is 6 weeks pregnant, is being educated by the nurse on prenatal care. Which statement indicates that the client comprehends the nurse's instructions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. During pregnancy, it is crucial to avoid taking any medication without consulting a healthcare provider to prevent harm to the developing fetus. Choices A, B, and C are important aspects of prenatal care but do not specifically address the potential risks associated with taking medications during pregnancy. Increasing intake of vitamin C (Choice A) is beneficial but does not address medication safety. Avoiding alcohol and tobacco (Choice B) is essential, but the question focuses on medication safety. Taking folic acid supplements (Choice C) is vital for neural tube development but does not cover the broader topic of medication safety.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a urinary tract infection. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fever can indicate a severe infection, such as pyelonephritis, in a client with a urinary tract infection and requires immediate intervention. Hematuria and dysuria are common symptoms of a urinary tract infection but may not always require immediate intervention unless severe. Urinary frequency is also a common symptom and does not indicate the severity of the infection as fever does.

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