HESI RN
Quizlet HESI Mental Health
1. Which client statement suggests to the nurse that the client is using the defense mechanism of projection to deal with anxiety related to admission to a psychiatric unit?
- A. I am here because the police thought I was doing something wrong
- B. At least I hit the wall instead of hitting the psychiatric aide
- C. I want to be here because I know it is the best psychiatric facility
- D. Don’t believe everything my family tells you, I am not crazy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client is projecting their aggressive impulses onto an inanimate object, the wall, instead of accepting their own feelings. This statement reflects the defense mechanism of projection. Choice A is not projection; it is an explanation of why the client is there. Choice C indicates acceptance of the facility and does not involve projection. Choice D is a denial statement rather than projection.
2. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?
- A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
- B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
- C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
- D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.
3. The nurse is completing the admission assessment of an underweight adolescent admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of depression. Which finding requires notification to the healthcare provider?
- A. Body mass index of 21
- B. Potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dL
- C. WBC count of 10,000/mm3
- D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dL is critically low and requires immediate notification to the healthcare provider as it indicates a potential electrolyte imbalance, which can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and other complications. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges or not indicative of immediate life-threatening issues. A body mass index of 21 may be considered normal for some individuals, a WBC count of 10,000/mm3 is slightly elevated but not an urgent concern, and a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within normal limits for an adolescent.
4. A female client, who is wearing dirty clothes and has a foul body odor, comes to the clinic reporting feeling scared because she is being stalked. What action is most important for the nurse to take?
- A. Assure the client that she will be seen by a healthcare provider today.
- B. Recommend that the client speaks with a social worker.
- C. Ask the client if she feels comfortable sharing why she is being stalked.
- D. Offer the client a safe place to relax before interviewing her.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most important action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to offer the client a safe place to relax before interviewing her. The client's disheveled appearance and foul body odor suggest she may be in distress or facing challenging circumstances. By providing her with a safe and comfortable environment to relax, the nurse can help alleviate some of her distress and establish trust. This approach is crucial as the client is already feeling scared due to being stalked, indicating underlying mental health concerns. Assuring the client that she will be seen by a healthcare provider today (choice A) may not address her immediate need for safety and comfort. Recommending she speaks with a social worker (choice B) may be beneficial later but does not address the immediate need for a safe space. Asking the client if she feels comfortable sharing why she is being stalked (choice C) is not appropriate as the priority is ensuring her safety and comfort first.
5. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is exhibiting negative symptoms such as anhedonia and social withdrawal. Which intervention should be a priority for the nurse?
- A. Encourage participation in group activities.
- B. Administer prescribed antipsychotic medication.
- C. Assist the client in setting realistic goals.
- D. Promote engagement in social interactions.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging participation in group activities is a priority intervention for a client with schizophrenia exhibiting negative symptoms like anhedonia and social withdrawal. Group activities provide structured social interactions and can help the client gradually re-engage with others, potentially reducing social withdrawal and improving social skills. Administering antipsychotic medication (Choice B) is essential in managing positive symptoms of schizophrenia such as hallucinations and delusions, not negative symptoms like anhedonia and social withdrawal. While assisting the client in setting realistic goals (Choice C) is important for overall care, addressing social withdrawal and anhedonia is more immediate. Promoting engagement in social interactions (Choice D) is beneficial, but encouraging participation in group activities provides a structured and supportive environment that can specifically target the negative symptoms being exhibited.
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