Nursing Elites

1. Which client statement suggests to the nurse that the client is using the defense mechanism of projection to deal with anxiety related to admission to a psychiatric unit?

• A. I am here because the police thought I was doing something wrong
• B. At least I hit the wall instead of hitting the psychiatric aide
• C. I want to be here because I know it is the best psychiatric facility
• D. Don’t believe everything my family tells you, I am not crazy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client is projecting their aggressive impulses onto an inanimate object, the wall, instead of accepting their own feelings. This statement reflects the defense mechanism of projection. Choice A is not projection; it is an explanation of why the client is there. Choice C indicates acceptance of the facility and does not involve projection. Choice D is a denial statement rather than projection.

2. A client who refuses antipsychotic medications disrupts group activities, talks with nonsensical words, and wanders into other clients' rooms. The nurse decides that the client needs constant observation based on which of these assessment findings?

• A. Wanders into clients' rooms.
• B. Refuses antipsychotic medication.
• C. Talks with nonsensical words.
• D. Disrupts group activities.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Disrupting group activities is a significant behavior that can pose risks to both the client and others. When combined with talking nonsensically and wandering into other clients' rooms, it indicates a need for constant observation to prevent harm or injury. Choices A, B, and C, although concerning, do not directly address the immediate safety concerns presented by disruptive behavior during group activities, which can lead to unpredictable situations and potential harm.

3. A client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) engages in repetitive hand washing that lasts for several hours. Which strategy should the nurse use to manage this behavior?

• A. Encourage the client to continue the behavior to alleviate anxiety.
• B. Establish a routine schedule for hand washing.
• C. Gradually reduce the amount of time spent on the behavior.
• D. Ignore the behavior as much as possible.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), it's crucial to gradually reduce the compulsive behavior to help the client learn to manage anxiety in a structured manner. Encouraging the client to continue the behavior (Choice A) would reinforce the cycle of compulsions. While establishing a routine schedule (Choice B) may provide some structure, it doesn't address the core issue of excessive hand washing. Ignoring the behavior (Choice D) may lead to worsening symptoms and does not help the client in managing their OCD effectively.

4. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

5. During the admission assessment, a female client requests that her husband be allowed to stay in the room. When the RN notes a discrepancy between the client’s verbal and nonverbal communication, what action should the RN take?

• A. Pay close attention to and document the nonverbal messages.
• B. Ask the client’s husband to interpret the discrepancy.
• C. Ignore the nonverbal behavior and focus solely on the client’s verbal messages.
• D. Integrate the verbal and nonverbal messages and interpret them together.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a client assessment, noting and documenting nonverbal messages is important as it captures the full context of the client’s communication. Nonverbal cues can often reveal underlying emotions or issues that may not be expressed verbally. Asking the client’s husband to interpret the discrepancy (Choice B) may not be appropriate as it could potentially breach the client's privacy and trust. Ignoring nonverbal behavior (Choice C) can result in missing important cues that could impact the care provided. Integrating verbal and nonverbal messages (Choice D) is beneficial, but the initial step should be to pay close attention and document the nonverbal messages to fully understand the client's communication.

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