Nursing Elites

1. Which client statement suggests to the nurse that the client is using the defense mechanism of projection to deal with anxiety related to admission to a psychiatric unit?

• A. I am here because the police thought I was doing something wrong
• B. At least I hit the wall instead of hitting the psychiatric aide
• C. I want to be here because I know it is the best psychiatric facility
• D. Don’t believe everything my family tells you, I am not crazy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client is projecting their aggressive impulses onto an inanimate object, the wall, instead of accepting their own feelings. This statement reflects the defense mechanism of projection. Choice A is not projection; it is an explanation of why the client is there. Choice C indicates acceptance of the facility and does not involve projection. Choice D is a denial statement rather than projection.

2. The nurse completes an assessment of a client who is experiencing intimate partner violence (IPV). Which finding of the injuries should the nurse include in the documentation?

• A. The client’s significant other’s statement.
• B. Photographs.
• C. General description.
• D. A summary of the client’s feelings.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of intimate partner violence (IPV), documenting injuries is essential for legal and medical purposes. Photographs provide concrete and objective evidence of the injuries, leaving no room for interpretation or doubt. This visual documentation can be crucial in legal proceedings and serve as a critical component in ensuring the safety and well-being of the client. The significant other's statement (Choice A) may not accurately reflect the client's injuries and could be biased. A general description (Choice C) lacks the specificity and objectivity that photographs offer. Summarizing the client's feelings (Choice D) is important for emotional support but does not provide the concrete evidence needed in documenting IPV cases.

3. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

4. A male client with a long history of alcohol dependency arrives in the emergency department describing the feeling of bugs crawling on his body. His BP is 170/102, pulse rate is 110 bpm, and his blood alcohol level (BAL) is 0 mg/dl. Which medication should the nurse administer?

• A. Haloperidol (Haldol)
• B. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
• C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing hallucinations and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the appropriate choice as it helps manage withdrawal symptoms, including hallucinations and elevated blood pressure in alcohol-dependent clients. Haloperidol (Haldol) (Choice A) is an antipsychotic but is not the first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Thiamine (Vitamin B1) (Choice B) is essential in alcohol withdrawal treatment for preventing Wernicke's encephalopathy, but in this case, addressing the acute withdrawal symptoms is the priority. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) (Choice C) is an antihistamine that may help with itching or mild anxiety but is not the preferred choice for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms like hallucinations and elevated blood pressure.

5. A young adult female visits the mental health clinic complaining of diarrhea, headache, and muscle aches. She is afebrile, denies chills, and all laboratory findings are within normal limits. During the physical assessment, the client tells the RN that her sister thinks she is neurotic and calls her a hypochondriac. Which response is best for the RN to provide?

• A. Unless your sister has a medical education, ignore her comments.
• B. I can hear that your sister comments are over-whelming you.
• C. Do you think it’s possible that you might be a hypochondriac?
• D. Besides your sister’s comments, what in your life is troubling you?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acknowledging the impact of the sister's comments on the client helps validate the client's feelings and supports therapeutic dialogue.

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