Nursing Elites

1. Which client statement suggests to the nurse that the client is using the defense mechanism of projection to deal with anxiety related to admission to a psychiatric unit?

• A. I am here because the police thought I was doing something wrong
• B. At least I hit the wall instead of hitting the psychiatric aide
• C. I want to be here because I know it is the best psychiatric facility
• D. Don’t believe everything my family tells you, I am not crazy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client is projecting their aggressive impulses onto an inanimate object, the wall, instead of accepting their own feelings. This statement reflects the defense mechanism of projection. Choice A is not projection; it is an explanation of why the client is there. Choice C indicates acceptance of the facility and does not involve projection. Choice D is a denial statement rather than projection.

2. A client is agitated and physically aggressive. What action should the RN take first?

• A. Calmly inform the client that they will be placed in seclusion if they do not calm down.
• B. Discuss with the client the reasons for their agitation and aggression.
• C. Tell the client that physical aggression is not acceptable and must stop.
• D. Seek assistance from other staff members and follow the facility’s protocol.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a situation where a client is agitated and physically aggressive, the priority for the RN is to ensure the safety of the client and others. Seeking assistance from other staff members is crucial as it allows for a prompt response to manage the situation effectively and according to the facility’s protocol. Choices A, B, and C do not address the immediate need for safety or involve the collaboration of other staff members, which is essential in handling aggressive behaviors in a healthcare setting.

3. The RN is leading a group on the inpatient psychiatric unit. Which approach should the RN use during the working phase of group development?

• A. Establishing a rapport with group members.
• B. Clarifying the nurse’s role and clients’ responsibilities.
• C. Discussing ways to use new coping skills learned.
• D. Helping clients identify areas of problems in their lives.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the working phase of group development, the focus should be on discussing and applying new coping skills to promote progress. This helps group members to practice and implement the skills they have learned, leading to positive outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are not ideal during the working phase. While establishing rapport is important, it is more relevant during the initial orientation phase. Clarifying roles and responsibilities is important at the beginning of group formation, and helping clients identify areas of problem in their lives is often part of the exploration phase, not the working phase.

4. An elderly client diagnosed with delirium is being treated with antipsychotic medication. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in this client?

• A. Akathisia
• B. Hallucinations
• C. Orthostatic hypotension
• D. Drowsiness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the nurse should monitor for in an elderly client diagnosed with delirium and treated with antipsychotic medication is orthostatic hypotension. Antipsychotic medications can lead to a drop in blood pressure upon standing, particularly in elderly individuals. Akathisia (choice A) refers to a movement disorder characterized by a feeling of inner restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion, which can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specific to elderly clients with delirium. Hallucinations (choice B) are sensory perceptions that appear real but are created by the mind, and while they can be associated with certain conditions or medications, they are not a common side effect of antipsychotic medications in elderly clients with delirium. Drowsiness (choice D) is a general CNS depressant effect that can occur with antipsychotic medications but is not the specific side effect that the nurse should be monitoring for in this case.

5. April, a 10-year-old admitted to inpatient pediatric care, has been getting more and more wound up and is losing self-control in the day room. Time-out does not appear to be an effective tool for April to engage in self-reflection. April’s mother admits to putting her in time-out up to 20 times a day. The nurse recognizes that:

• A. Time-out is an important part of April's baseline discipline.
• B. Time-out is no longer an effective therapeutic measure.
• C. April enjoys time-out and acts out to get some alone time.
• D. Time-out will need to be replaced with seclusion and restraint.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Time-out is no longer an effective therapeutic measure.' In this scenario, the excessive use of time-out, up to 20 times a day, indicates that it is no longer effective in helping April self-reflect and control her behavior. Constant use of time-out without achieving the desired outcome suggests the need for alternative therapeutic interventions. Choice A is incorrect because the situation described indicates that time-out is not serving its intended purpose. Choice C is also incorrect as the behavior is not driven by a desire for alone time. Choice D is incorrect and inappropriate as seclusion and restraint should only be considered as a last resort and are not indicated based on the information provided.

Similar Questions