Nursing Elites

1. A client with severe COPD is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client's oxygen saturation level drops to 88% during ambulation. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
• B. Instruct the client to rest until the oxygen saturation improves.
• C. Discontinue ambulation and return the client to bed.
• D. Encourage the client to breathe more deeply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's oxygen saturation level dropping during ambulation indicates an inadequate oxygen supply. The first action the nurse should take is to discontinue ambulation and return the client to bed. This helps stabilize the oxygen level by reducing the oxygen demand placed on the client during physical activity. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without addressing the underlying issue of oxygen saturation dropping may not be effective. Instructing the client to rest is not enough to address the immediate need for stabilization of oxygen levels. Encouraging the client to breathe more deeply may not be sufficient to overcome the oxygen saturation drop caused by inadequate oxygen supply during ambulation.

2. A female client who is admitted to the mental health unit for opiate dependency is receiving clonidine 0.1 mg PO for withdrawal symptoms. The client begins to complain of feeling nervous and tells the nurse that her bones are itching. Which finding should the nurse identify as a contraindication for administering the medication?

• A. Blood pressure 90/76 mm Hg.
• B. Heart rate of 85 bpm.
• C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/minute.
• D. Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clonidine can lower blood pressure, so a BP of 90/76 mm Hg may indicate that it is unsafe to administer another dose. In this situation, the low blood pressure reading indicates that the client is already experiencing hypotension, which is a common side effect of clonidine. Administering more clonidine could further lower the blood pressure, leading to potential complications. The heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature are within normal limits and do not serve as contraindications for administering clonidine in this scenario.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which laboratory value should be monitored closely?

• A. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
• B. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L
• C. Serum creatinine of 1.8 mg/dl
• D. Serum glucose of 200 mg/dl

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with left-sided heart failure, monitoring serum creatinine is crucial to evaluate kidney function and fluid balance. Elevated creatinine levels can indicate impaired kidney function, which is common in heart failure due to decreased cardiac output and renal perfusion. Serum sodium levels (choice A) are important but are more closely associated with fluid balance and heart failure exacerbation. Serum potassium (choice B) is also important to monitor, but it is more closely linked to cardiac arrhythmias rather than kidney function. Serum glucose levels (choice D) are significant but are not the priority for monitoring in left-sided heart failure.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• B. Serum glucose level
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Prothrombin time (PT)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client with atrial fibrillation to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy with warfarin. Monitoring the INR helps to ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent complications such as thrombosis or bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in this scenario. While serum glucose levels are important in assessing metabolic status, and white blood cell count and prothrombin time are important indicators for other conditions, they are not the primary focus when a client with atrial fibrillation presents with confusion.

5. A female client reports that she drank a liter of a solution to cleanse her intestines but vomited immediately. How many ml of fluid intake should the nurse document?

• A. 240 ml
• B. 500 ml
• C. 760 ml
• D. 1000 ml

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 760 ml. After vomiting 240 ml (1 cup), the nurse should document the remaining 760 ml as the fluid intake. Choice A (240 ml) is the amount vomited, not the total intake. Choice B (500 ml) and Choice D (1000 ml) are the total intake, not considering the vomiting.

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