Nursing Elites

1. A client with severe COPD is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client's oxygen saturation level drops to 88% during ambulation. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
• B. Instruct the client to rest until the oxygen saturation improves.
• C. Discontinue ambulation and return the client to bed.
• D. Encourage the client to breathe more deeply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's oxygen saturation level dropping during ambulation indicates an inadequate oxygen supply. The first action the nurse should take is to discontinue ambulation and return the client to bed. This helps stabilize the oxygen level by reducing the oxygen demand placed on the client during physical activity. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without addressing the underlying issue of oxygen saturation dropping may not be effective. Instructing the client to rest is not enough to address the immediate need for stabilization of oxygen levels. Encouraging the client to breathe more deeply may not be sufficient to overcome the oxygen saturation drop caused by inadequate oxygen supply during ambulation.

2. A client with a tracheostomy has thick, tenacious secretions. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Encourage the client to drink plenty of fluids.
• B. Perform deep suctioning every 2 to 4 hours.
• C. Increase humidity in the client's room.
• D. Administer a mucolytic agent.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increasing humidity in the client's room can help liquefy thick secretions and facilitate easier airway clearance in a client with a tracheostomy. Encouraging the client to drink plenty of fluids can be beneficial for overall hydration but may not directly address thick secretions. Deep suctioning every 2 to 4 hours can be harmful and cause trauma to the airway lining. Administering a mucolytic agent should be done under the healthcare provider's order and may not be the initial intervention for thick secretions.

3. An elderly female client with osteoarthritis reports increasing pain and stiffness in her right knee and asks how to reduce these symptoms. In responding to the client, the nurse recognizes what pathology as the cause of her symptoms?

• A. Destruction of joint cartilage.
• B. Inflammation of synovial membrane.
• C. Formation of bone spurs.
• D. Reduction of joint space.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Osteoarthritis typically involves the destruction of joint cartilage, leading to pain and stiffness. This destruction of joint cartilage results in bone rubbing against bone, causing pain and reduced mobility. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Inflammation of the synovial membrane (choice B) is more commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Formation of bone spurs (choice C) and reduction of joint space (choice D) are manifestations that can occur as a result of osteoarthritis but are not the primary pathology responsible for the symptoms of pain and stiffness.

4. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory value should be closely monitored before the procedure?

• A. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dl
• B. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• C. Serum calcium of 8.0 mg/dl
• D. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dl

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is concerning in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis as it indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac complications. Hyperkalemia can be exacerbated during hemodialysis, making it crucial to closely monitor serum potassium levels before the procedure. Monitoring serum creatinine, serum calcium, or hemoglobin levels is important in managing ESRD but is not the immediate focus before hemodialysis. Therefore, option B is the correct choice.

5. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority for a multigravida who delivered an hour ago?

• A. Maintain cold packs to the perineum for 24 hours.
• B. Assess the client's pain level frequently.
• C. Observe for appropriate interaction with the infant.
• D. Assess fundal tone and lochia flow.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing fundal tone and lochia flow is crucial in the immediate postpartum period to detect postpartum hemorrhage, a life-threatening complication. Monitoring these parameters allows for early identification of excessive bleeding, enabling prompt intervention. While maintaining cold packs to the perineum, assessing pain levels, and observing for appropriate interaction with the infant are important aspects of postpartum care, assessing fundal tone and lochia flow takes precedence due to its direct relevance to identifying and managing a potential emergency situation.

Similar Questions