Nursing Elites

1. Which task can the registered nurse (RN) caring for a critically ill patient with multiple IV lines delegate to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)?

• A. Administer IV antibiotics through the implantable port.
• B. Monitor the IV sites for redness, swelling, or tenderness.
• C. Remove the patient’s nontunneled subclavian central venous catheter.
• D. Adjust the flow rate of the 0.9% normal saline in the peripheral IV line.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An experienced LPN/LVN can monitor IV sites for signs of infection because it falls within their education, experience, and scope of practice. Administering IV antibiotics through an implantable port, adjusting infusion rates, and removing central catheters are tasks that require RN level education and scope of practice. These activities involve a higher level of assessment, critical thinking, and potential complications that are typically within the RN's domain.

2. A patient is admitted to the emergency department with severe fatigue and confusion. Laboratory studies are done. Which laboratory value will require the most immediate action by the nurse?

• A. Arterial blood pH is 7.32.
• B. Serum calcium is 18 mg/dL.
• C. Serum potassium is 5.1 mEq/L
• D. Arterial oxygen saturation is 91%.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A serum calcium level of 18 mg/dL is significantly elevated, posing a high risk for cardiac dysrhythmias. Immediate action is required to initiate cardiac monitoring and notify the healthcare provider. While the abnormalities in arterial blood pH, serum potassium, and arterial oxygen saturation also need attention, they are not as immediately life-threatening as the critically high serum calcium level. Therefore, addressing the serum calcium level takes precedence in this scenario.

3. How should the nurse interpret the following arterial blood gas results for a patient who had a tracheostomy placed after a motor vehicle crash: pH 7.48, PaO2 85 mm Hg, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, and HCO3 25 mEq/L?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient's pH of 7.48 indicates alkalosis, and the low PaCO2 of 32 mm Hg suggests a respiratory cause. The HCO3 level is normal, ruling out metabolic causes. Therefore, the correct interpretation is respiratory alkalosis. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the pH and PaCO2 values provided.

4. A patient is admitted for hypovolemia associated with multiple draining wounds. Which assessment would be the most accurate way for the nurse to evaluate fluid balance?

• A. Skin turgor
• B. Daily weight
• C. Presence of edema
• D. Hourly urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Daily weight is the most easily obtained and accurate means of assessing volume status. Skin turgor varies considerably with age and can be affected by various factors other than fluid balance. Presence of edema indicates excess fluid has moved into the interstitial space, which may not always be directly correlated with overall fluid balance. Hourly urine outputs, though important, do not provide a comprehensive picture of fluid balance as they do not consider fluid intake, insensible losses, or other sources of fluid loss.

5. The nurse is preparing to send a client to the cardiac catheterization lab for an angioplasty. Which client report is most important for the nurse to explore further prior to the procedure?

• A. Experiences facial swelling after eating crab
• B. Reports left chest wall pain prior to the admission
• C. Verbalizes a fear of being in a confined space
• D. Drank a glass of water

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Allergy to shellfish can indicate a potential allergy to iodine, which is used in contrast dye for the procedure. This must be explored further to prevent an allergic reaction. Choice B is not directly related to the angioplasty procedure. Choice C pertains to claustrophobia, which can be addressed but is not directly related to the safety of the procedure. Choice D is a routine activity and does not pose a risk to the client during the procedure.

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