Nursing Elites

1. Which task can the registered nurse (RN) caring for a critically ill patient with multiple IV lines delegate to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)?

• A. Administer IV antibiotics through the implantable port.
• B. Monitor the IV sites for redness, swelling, or tenderness.
• C. Remove the patient’s nontunneled subclavian central venous catheter.
• D. Adjust the flow rate of the 0.9% normal saline in the peripheral IV line.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An experienced LPN/LVN can monitor IV sites for signs of infection because it falls within their education, experience, and scope of practice. Administering IV antibiotics through an implantable port, adjusting infusion rates, and removing central catheters are tasks that require RN level education and scope of practice. These activities involve a higher level of assessment, critical thinking, and potential complications that are typically within the RN's domain.

2. An adult who has recurrent episodes of depression tells the nurse that the prescribed antidepressant needs to be discontinued because the client is feeling better after taking the medication for the past couple of weeks and does not like the side effects. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Remind the client that feeling better is the therapeutic effect of the medication.
• B. Inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication.
• C. Tell the client to discuss the medication side effects with the healthcare provider.
• D. Tell the client that the medication side effects will most likely diminish over time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication. Abrupt cessation of antidepressants can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a recurrence of depressive symptoms. Choice A is not the best response as it does not address the need for a proper discontinuation plan. Choice C is not the best response as it focuses solely on the side effects and does not address the discontinuation process. Choice D is not the best response because while side effects may diminish over time, the focus here should be on the safe discontinuation of the medication to prevent adverse effects.

3. The nurse is teaching the parent of a child newly diagnosed with a latex allergy. Which information by the parents indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. Rubber-free toys, such as wooden building blocks, are good choices for the child.
• B. Only foil balloons will be used for the child's birthday party.
• C. A diet of healthy fruits, such as bananas and kiwis, is best for the child.
• D. An epinephrine auto-injector will be on hand to treat allergic reactions.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Bananas and kiwis are foods that can cross-react with latex allergy, indicating that the parents need further teaching on managing latex allergies. Choices A, B, and D are correct as rubber-free toys, using foil balloons, and having an epinephrine auto-injector are appropriate measures to prevent and manage allergic reactions in a child with a latex allergy.

4. When caring for a patient with renal failure on a low phosphate diet, the nurse will inform unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to remove which food from the patient’s food tray?

• A. Grape juice
• B. Milk carton
• C. Mixed green salad
• D. Fried chicken breast

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Milk carton. Foods high in phosphate, like milk and other dairy products, are restricted on low-phosphate diets to manage renal failure. Green, leafy vegetables, high-fat foods, and fruits/juices are not high in phosphate and are not restricted. Therefore, grape juice, mixed green salad, and fried chicken breast do not need to be removed from the patient's food tray.

5. An older patient receiving iso-osmolar continuous tube feedings develops restlessness, agitation, and weakness. Which laboratory result should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately?

• A. K+ 3.4 mEq/L (3.4 mmol/L)
• B. Ca+2 7.8 mg/dL (1.95 mmol/L)
• C. Na+ 154 mEq/L (154 mmol/L)
• D. PO4-3 4.8 mg/dL (1.55 mmol/L)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The elevated serum sodium level (154 mEq/L) is consistent with the patient's neurologic symptoms of restlessness, agitation, and weakness, indicating a need for immediate action to prevent complications like seizures. The potassium level (3.4 mEq/L) and calcium level (7.8 mg/dL) are slightly off from normal but do not require immediate action. The phosphate level (4.8 mg/dL) is normal and not related to the symptoms presented by the patient.

Similar Questions