Nursing Elites

1. An adult who has recurrent episodes of depression tells the nurse that the prescribed antidepressant needs to be discontinued because the client is feeling better after taking the medication for the past couple of weeks and does not like the side effects. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Remind the client that feeling better is the therapeutic effect of the medication.
• B. Inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication.
• C. Tell the client to discuss the medication side effects with the healthcare provider.
• D. Tell the client that the medication side effects will most likely diminish over time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication. Abrupt cessation of antidepressants can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a recurrence of depressive symptoms. Choice A is not the best response as it does not address the need for a proper discontinuation plan. Choice C is not the best response as it focuses solely on the side effects and does not address the discontinuation process. Choice D is not the best response because while side effects may diminish over time, the focus here should be on the safe discontinuation of the medication to prevent adverse effects.

2. A patient with renal failure has been taking aluminum hydroxide/magnesium hydroxide suspension (Maalox) at home for indigestion. The patient arrives for outpatient hemodialysis and is unresponsive to questions and has decreased deep tendon reflexes. Which action should the dialysis nurse take first?

• A. Notify the patient’s health care provider.
• B. Obtain an order to draw a potassium level.
• C. Review the magnesium level on the patient’s chart.
• D. Teach the patient about the risk of magnesium-containing antacids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The health care provider should be notified immediately. The patient has a history and manifestations consistent with hypermagnesemia. The nurse should check the chart for a recent serum magnesium level and make sure that blood is sent to the laboratory for immediate electrolyte and chemistry determinations. Dialysis should correct the high magnesium levels. The patient needs teaching about the risks of taking magnesium-containing antacids. Monitoring of potassium levels also is important for patients with renal failure, but the patient’s current symptoms are not consistent with hyperkalemia.

3. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of frequent, watery stools for the last 2 days. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Obtain the baseline weight
• B. Check the patient’s blood pressure
• C. Draw blood for serum electrolyte levels
• D. Ask about any extremity numbness or tingling

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the patient’s blood pressure. Given the patient's symptoms of frequent, watery stools, there is a concern for fluid volume deficit. Assessing the blood pressure helps determine the patient's perfusion status, which is crucial in managing fluid volume deficits. While obtaining baseline weight, drawing blood for serum electrolyte levels, and asking about extremity numbness or tingling are important assessments, checking the blood pressure takes precedence as it provides immediate information on the patient's circulatory status.

4. A patient who is taking a potassium-wasting diuretic for the treatment of hypertension complains of generalized weakness. It is most appropriate for the nurse to take which action?

• A. Assess for facial muscle spasms.
• B. Ask the patient about loose stools.
• C. Suggest that the patient avoid orange juice with meals.
• D. Ask the healthcare provider to order a basic metabolic panel.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Generalized weakness is a sign of hypokalemia, a potential side effect of potassium-wasting diuretics. By requesting a basic metabolic panel, the nurse can assess the patient's potassium levels. Facial muscle spasms are associated with hypocalcemia, not hypokalemia. Advising the patient to avoid orange juice, which is high in potassium, would be counterproductive if the patient is hypokalemic. Loose stools are typically seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.

5. An older adult patient who is malnourished presents to the emergency department with a serum protein level of 5.2 g/dL. The nurse would expect which clinical manifestation?

• A. Pallor
• B. Edema
• C. Confusion
• D. Restlessness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Edema. The normal range for total protein is 6.4 to 8.3 g/dL. Low serum protein levels cause a decrease in plasma oncotic pressure and allow fluid to remain in interstitial tissues, causing edema. Confusion, restlessness, and pallor are not associated with low serum protein levels. Pallor is more commonly seen in anemia, confusion and restlessness may be related to other issues like electrolyte imbalances or neurological conditions.

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