Nursing Elites

1. An adult who has recurrent episodes of depression tells the nurse that the prescribed antidepressant needs to be discontinued because the client is feeling better after taking the medication for the past couple of weeks and does not like the side effects. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Remind the client that feeling better is the therapeutic effect of the medication.
• B. Inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication.
• C. Tell the client to discuss the medication side effects with the healthcare provider.
• D. Tell the client that the medication side effects will most likely diminish over time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication. Abrupt cessation of antidepressants can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a recurrence of depressive symptoms. Choice A is not the best response as it does not address the need for a proper discontinuation plan. Choice C is not the best response as it focuses solely on the side effects and does not address the discontinuation process. Choice D is not the best response because while side effects may diminish over time, the focus here should be on the safe discontinuation of the medication to prevent adverse effects.

2. A patient who had a transverse colectomy for diverticulosis 18 hours ago has nasogastric suction and is complaining of anxiety and incisional pain. The patient’s respiratory rate is 32 breaths/minute and the arterial blood gases (ABGs) indicate respiratory alkalosis. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Discontinue the nasogastric suction.
• B. Give the patient the PRN IV morphine sulfate 4 mg.
• C. Notify the health care provider about the ABG results.
• D. Teach the patient how to take slow, deep breaths when anxious.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient’s respiratory alkalosis is caused by the increased respiratory rate associated with pain and anxiety. The nurse’s first action should be to medicate the patient for pain. Although the nasogastric suction may contribute to the alkalosis, it is not appropriate to discontinue the tube when the patient needs gastric suction. The health care provider may be notified about the ABGs but is likely to instruct the nurse to medicate for pain. The patient will not be able to take slow, deep breaths when experiencing pain.

3. The father of an 11-year-old client reports to the nurse that the client has been wetting the bed since the passing of his mother and is concerned. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Reassure the father that it is normal for a pre-teen to wet the bed during times of stress
• B. Inform the father that nocturnal emissions are abnormal and his son is developmentally delayed
• C. Inform the father that it is most important to let the son know that bedwetting is normal after trauma
• D. Refer the father and the client to a psychologist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: It is common for children to experience bedwetting as a response to severe trauma, such as losing a parent. Referring the father and the client to a psychologist is crucial in this situation to help the child cope with the loss and address any underlying emotional issues. Choice A is incorrect as bedwetting in this context is likely related to the trauma rather than puberty. Choice B is incorrect as nocturnal emissions are not abnormal and do not relate to bedwetting. Choice C is incorrect because the focus should be on addressing the emotional impact of the trauma rather than specifically discussing bedwetting.

4. A patient is admitted for hypovolemia associated with multiple draining wounds. Which assessment would be the most accurate way for the nurse to evaluate fluid balance?

• A. Skin turgor
• B. Daily weight
• C. Presence of edema
• D. Hourly urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Daily weight is the most easily obtained and accurate means of assessing volume status. Skin turgor varies considerably with age and can be affected by various factors other than fluid balance. Presence of edema indicates excess fluid has moved into the interstitial space, which may not always be directly correlated with overall fluid balance. Hourly urine outputs, though important, do not provide a comprehensive picture of fluid balance as they do not consider fluid intake, insensible losses, or other sources of fluid loss.

5. The nurse in the emergency department observes a colleague viewing the electronic health record (EHR) of a client who holds an elected position in the community. The client is not a part of the colleague's assignment. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Communicate the colleague's actions to the unit charge nurse
• B. Send an email to facility administration reporting the action
• C. Write an anonymous complaint to a professional website
• D. Post a comment about the action on a staff discussion board

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Viewing the EHR of a client who is not under your care is a violation of HIPAA regulations, regardless of the client's social status or your curiosity. The appropriate action to take in this situation is to communicate the colleague's actions to the unit charge nurse. The charge nurse can then escalate the issue through the appropriate channels within the organization. Reporting to the charge nurse ensures that the incident is handled internally and in accordance with organizational policies and procedures. Sending an email to facility administration, writing an anonymous complaint to a professional website, or posting a comment on a staff discussion board are not the recommended actions as they may not address the issue effectively and could potentially violate confidentiality further.

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