Nursing Elites

1. An adult who has recurrent episodes of depression tells the nurse that the prescribed antidepressant needs to be discontinued because the client is feeling better after taking the medication for the past couple of weeks and does not like the side effects. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Remind the client that feeling better is the therapeutic effect of the medication.
• B. Inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication.
• C. Tell the client to discuss the medication side effects with the healthcare provider.
• D. Tell the client that the medication side effects will most likely diminish over time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication. Abrupt cessation of antidepressants can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a recurrence of depressive symptoms. Choice A is not the best response as it does not address the need for a proper discontinuation plan. Choice C is not the best response as it focuses solely on the side effects and does not address the discontinuation process. Choice D is not the best response because while side effects may diminish over time, the focus here should be on the safe discontinuation of the medication to prevent adverse effects.

2. The nurse in the emergency department observes a colleague viewing the electronic health record (EHR) of a client who holds an elected position in the community. The client is not a part of the colleague's assignment. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Communicate the colleague's actions to the unit charge nurse
• B. Send an email to facility administration reporting the action
• C. Write an anonymous complaint to a professional website
• D. Post a comment about the action on a staff discussion board

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Viewing the EHR of a client who is not under your care is a violation of HIPAA regulations, regardless of the client's social status or your curiosity. The appropriate action to take in this situation is to communicate the colleague's actions to the unit charge nurse. The charge nurse can then escalate the issue through the appropriate channels within the organization. Reporting to the charge nurse ensures that the incident is handled internally and in accordance with organizational policies and procedures. Sending an email to facility administration, writing an anonymous complaint to a professional website, or posting a comment on a staff discussion board are not the recommended actions as they may not address the issue effectively and could potentially violate confidentiality further.

3. While changing a client's post-operative dressing, the nurse observes a red and swollen wound with a moderate amount of yellow and green drainage and a foul odor. Given there is a positive MRSA, which is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Force oral fluids
• B. Request a nutrition consult
• C. Initiate contact precautions
• D. Limit visitors to immediate family only

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important action for the nurse to take when a client has a positive MRSA and presents with a wound showing signs of infection is to initiate contact precautions. MRSA is highly contagious and placing the patient on contact precautions helps prevent the spread of the bacteria to others in the healthcare setting. (A) Forcing oral fluids will not directly address the MRSA infection. (B) Requesting a nutrition consult is not the priority in this situation. (D) Limiting visitors to immediate family only is not necessary as MRSA precautions are primarily focused on healthcare workers and close contacts who provide direct care.

4. A patient is admitted to the emergency department with severe fatigue and confusion. Laboratory studies are done. Which laboratory value will require the most immediate action by the nurse?

• A. Arterial blood pH is 7.32.
• B. Serum calcium is 18 mg/dL.
• C. Serum potassium is 5.1 mEq/L
• D. Arterial oxygen saturation is 91%.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A serum calcium level of 18 mg/dL is significantly elevated, posing a high risk for cardiac dysrhythmias. Immediate action is required to initiate cardiac monitoring and notify the healthcare provider. While the abnormalities in arterial blood pH, serum potassium, and arterial oxygen saturation also need attention, they are not as immediately life-threatening as the critically high serum calcium level. Therefore, addressing the serum calcium level takes precedence in this scenario.

5. A patient who is lethargic and exhibits deep, rapid respirations has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.32, PaO2 88 mm Hg, PaCO2 37 mm Hg, and HCO3 16 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient's pH is below the normal range (7.35-7.45), and the HCO3 is also below the normal range (22-26 mEq/L), indicating an acidic environment, which is consistent with metabolic acidosis. The ABGs provided do not support respiratory acidosis or alkalosis, as the PaCO2 is within the normal range (35-45 mm Hg) despite the patient's deep, rapid respirations. Therefore, the correct interpretation is metabolic acidosis.

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