Nursing Elites

1. An adult who has recurrent episodes of depression tells the nurse that the prescribed antidepressant needs to be discontinued because the client is feeling better after taking the medication for the past couple of weeks and does not like the side effects. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Remind the client that feeling better is the therapeutic effect of the medication.
• B. Inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication.
• C. Tell the client to discuss the medication side effects with the healthcare provider.
• D. Tell the client that the medication side effects will most likely diminish over time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication. Abrupt cessation of antidepressants can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a recurrence of depressive symptoms. Choice A is not the best response as it does not address the need for a proper discontinuation plan. Choice C is not the best response as it focuses solely on the side effects and does not address the discontinuation process. Choice D is not the best response because while side effects may diminish over time, the focus here should be on the safe discontinuation of the medication to prevent adverse effects.

2. The long-term care nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of protein supplements for an older resident who has a low serum total protein level. Which assessment finding indicates that the patient’s condition has improved?

• A. Hematocrit 28%
• B. Absence of skin tenting
• C. Decreased peripheral edema
• D. Blood pressure 110/72 mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The decrease in peripheral edema indicates an improvement in the patient’s protein status. Edema is caused by low oncotic pressure in individuals with low serum protein levels. Good skin turgor is an indicator of fluid balance, not protein status. A low hematocrit could be caused by poor protein intake. Blood pressure does not provide a useful clinical tool for monitoring protein status.

3. An older patient receiving iso-osmolar continuous tube feedings develops restlessness, agitation, and weakness. Which laboratory result should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately?

• A. K+ 3.4 mEq/L (3.4 mmol/L)
• B. Ca+2 7.8 mg/dL (1.95 mmol/L)
• C. Na+ 154 mEq/L (154 mmol/L)
• D. PO4-3 4.8 mg/dL (1.55 mmol/L)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The elevated serum sodium level (154 mEq/L) is consistent with the patient's neurologic symptoms of restlessness, agitation, and weakness, indicating a need for immediate action to prevent complications like seizures. The potassium level (3.4 mEq/L) and calcium level (7.8 mg/dL) are slightly off from normal but do not require immediate action. The phosphate level (4.8 mg/dL) is normal and not related to the symptoms presented by the patient.

4. At 01:00 on a male client's second postoperative night, the client states he is unable to sleep and plans to read until feeling sleepy. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Leave the room and close the door to the client's room
• B. Assess the appearance of the client's surgical dressing
• C. Bring the client a prescribed PRN sedative-hypnotic
• D. Discuss symptoms of sleep deprivation with the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client has a plan to read until feeling sleepy, indicating an intention to sleep. Therefore, offering a PRN sedative-hypnotic (C) is unnecessary, especially since it is a stronger sleep aid. Option (D) is not needed as the client already has a plan to address his sleeplessness. Assessing the surgical dressing (B) is not relevant to the client's immediate need for sleep. Leaving the room and closing the door (A) is the appropriate action to provide a conducive environment for the client to rest.

5. Before leaving the room of a confused client, the nurse notes that a half bow knot was used to attach the client's wrist restraints to the movable portion of the client's bed frame. What action should the nurse take before leaving the room?

• A. Tie the knot with a double turn or square knot
• B. Ensure that the restraints are snug against the client's wrists
• C. Ensure that the knot can be quickly released
• D. Move the ties so the restraints are secured to the side rails

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority is to ensure that the knot can be quickly released to allow for quick intervention if necessary. Tying the knot with a double turn or square knot (Choice A) may make it more difficult to release quickly in an emergency. Ensuring that the restraints are snug against the client's wrists (Choice B) may compromise circulation and cause discomfort. Moving the ties to secure the restraints to the side rails (Choice D) is not the appropriate action as it can limit the client's movement and access to care.

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