Nursing Elites

1. An adult who has recurrent episodes of depression tells the nurse that the prescribed antidepressant needs to be discontinued because the client is feeling better after taking the medication for the past couple of weeks and does not like the side effects. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Remind the client that feeling better is the therapeutic effect of the medication.
• B. Inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication.
• C. Tell the client to discuss the medication side effects with the healthcare provider.
• D. Tell the client that the medication side effects will most likely diminish over time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication. Abrupt cessation of antidepressants can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a recurrence of depressive symptoms. Choice A is not the best response as it does not address the need for a proper discontinuation plan. Choice C is not the best response as it focuses solely on the side effects and does not address the discontinuation process. Choice D is not the best response because while side effects may diminish over time, the focus here should be on the safe discontinuation of the medication to prevent adverse effects.

2. The nurse notes a serum calcium level of 7.9 mg/dL for a patient who has chronic malnutrition. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Monitor ionized calcium level.
• B. Give oral calcium citrate tablets.
• C. Check parathyroid hormone level.
• D. Administer vitamin D supplements.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: This patient with chronic malnutrition is likely to have a low serum albumin level, which will affect the total serum calcium. A more accurate reflection of calcium balance is the ionized calcium level. Most of the calcium in the blood is bound to protein (primarily albumin). Alterations in serum albumin levels affect the interpretation of total calcium levels. Low albumin levels result in a drop in the total calcium level, although the level of ionized calcium is not affected. The nurse should monitor the ionized calcium level to get a clearer picture of the patient's calcium status. Giving oral calcium citrate tablets, checking parathyroid hormone level, or administering vitamin D supplements may be necessary based on the ionized calcium results, but they are not the immediate next step in assessment and management.

3. The nurse is caring for a patient with a massive burn injury and possible hypovolemia. Which assessment data will be of most concern to the nurse?

• A. Blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg.
• B. Urine output is 30 mL over the last hour.
• C. Oral fluid intake is 100 mL over the last 8 hours.
• D. There is prolonged skin tenting over the sternum.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg." A low blood pressure reading of 90/40 mm Hg indicates that the patient may be developing hypovolemic shock due to intravascular fluid loss from the burn injury. This finding is of utmost concern as it suggests systemic hypoperfusion, requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D also indicate signs of dehydration and the need to increase fluid intake; however, they are not as urgent as addressing the hypotension and potential shock presented in choice A.

4. A patient who is lethargic and exhibits deep, rapid respirations has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.32, PaO2 88 mm Hg, PaCO2 37 mm Hg, and HCO3 16 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient's pH is below the normal range (7.35-7.45), and the HCO3 is also below the normal range (22-26 mEq/L), indicating an acidic environment, which is consistent with metabolic acidosis. The ABGs provided do not support respiratory acidosis or alkalosis, as the PaCO2 is within the normal range (35-45 mm Hg) despite the patient's deep, rapid respirations. Therefore, the correct interpretation is metabolic acidosis.

5. At 01:00 on a male client's second postoperative night, the client states he is unable to sleep and plans to read until feeling sleepy. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Leave the room and close the door to the client's room
• B. Assess the appearance of the client's surgical dressing
• C. Bring the client a prescribed PRN sedative-hypnotic
• D. Discuss symptoms of sleep deprivation with the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client has a plan to read until feeling sleepy, indicating an intention to sleep. Therefore, offering a PRN sedative-hypnotic (C) is unnecessary, especially since it is a stronger sleep aid. Option (D) is not needed as the client already has a plan to address his sleeplessness. Assessing the surgical dressing (B) is not relevant to the client's immediate need for sleep. Leaving the room and closing the door (A) is the appropriate action to provide a conducive environment for the client to rest.

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