an adult who has recurrent episodes of depression tells the nurse that the prescribed antidepressant needs to be discontinued because the client is fe
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Adult Health 1 HESI

1. An adult who has recurrent episodes of depression tells the nurse that the prescribed antidepressant needs to be discontinued because the client is feeling better after taking the medication for the past couple of weeks and does not like the side effects. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication. Abrupt cessation of antidepressants can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a recurrence of depressive symptoms. Choice A is not the best response as it does not address the need for a proper discontinuation plan. Choice C is not the best response as it focuses solely on the side effects and does not address the discontinuation process. Choice D is not the best response because while side effects may diminish over time, the focus here should be on the safe discontinuation of the medication to prevent adverse effects.

2. Which task can the registered nurse (RN) caring for a critically ill patient with multiple IV lines delegate to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An experienced LPN/LVN can monitor IV sites for signs of infection because it falls within their education, experience, and scope of practice. Administering IV antibiotics through an implantable port, adjusting infusion rates, and removing central catheters are tasks that require RN level education and scope of practice. These activities involve a higher level of assessment, critical thinking, and potential complications that are typically within the RN's domain.

3. A patient who is lethargic and exhibits deep, rapid respirations has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.32, PaO2 88 mm Hg, PaCO2 37 mm Hg, and HCO3 16 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient's pH is below the normal range (7.35-7.45), and the HCO3 is also below the normal range (22-26 mEq/L), indicating an acidic environment, which is consistent with metabolic acidosis. The ABGs provided do not support respiratory acidosis or alkalosis, as the PaCO2 is within the normal range (35-45 mm Hg) despite the patient's deep, rapid respirations. Therefore, the correct interpretation is metabolic acidosis.

4. IV potassium chloride (KCl) 60 mEq is prescribed for the treatment of a patient with severe hypokalemia. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to infuse the KCl at a rate of 10 mEq/hour. Rapid IV infusion of KCl can lead to cardiac arrest due to its potential for causing hyperkalemia. While KCl can be administered through peripheral veins, central venous lines are not necessary unless specified. It is crucial to continue cardiac monitoring during potassium infusion to promptly identify and manage any potential dysrhythmias that may occur.

5. An older adult patient who is malnourished presents to the emergency department with a serum protein level of 5.2 g/dL. The nurse would expect which clinical manifestation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Edema. The normal range for total protein is 6.4 to 8.3 g/dL. Low serum protein levels cause a decrease in plasma oncotic pressure and allow fluid to remain in interstitial tissues, causing edema. Confusion, restlessness, and pallor are not associated with low serum protein levels. Pallor is more commonly seen in anemia, confusion and restlessness may be related to other issues like electrolyte imbalances or neurological conditions.

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