Nursing Elites

1. An adult who has recurrent episodes of depression tells the nurse that the prescribed antidepressant needs to be discontinued because the client is feeling better after taking the medication for the past couple of weeks and does not like the side effects. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Remind the client that feeling better is the therapeutic effect of the medication.
• B. Inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication.
• C. Tell the client to discuss the medication side effects with the healthcare provider.
• D. Tell the client that the medication side effects will most likely diminish over time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication. Abrupt cessation of antidepressants can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a recurrence of depressive symptoms. Choice A is not the best response as it does not address the need for a proper discontinuation plan. Choice C is not the best response as it focuses solely on the side effects and does not address the discontinuation process. Choice D is not the best response because while side effects may diminish over time, the focus here should be on the safe discontinuation of the medication to prevent adverse effects.

2. A patient is admitted for hypovolemia associated with multiple draining wounds. Which assessment would be the most accurate way for the nurse to evaluate fluid balance?

• A. Skin turgor
• B. Daily weight
• C. Presence of edema
• D. Hourly urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Daily weight is the most easily obtained and accurate means of assessing volume status. Skin turgor varies considerably with age and can be affected by various factors other than fluid balance. Presence of edema indicates excess fluid has moved into the interstitial space, which may not always be directly correlated with overall fluid balance. Hourly urine outputs, though important, do not provide a comprehensive picture of fluid balance as they do not consider fluid intake, insensible losses, or other sources of fluid loss.

3. An older patient receiving iso-osmolar continuous tube feedings develops restlessness, agitation, and weakness. Which laboratory result should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately?

• A. K+ 3.4 mEq/L (3.4 mmol/L)
• B. Ca+2 7.8 mg/dL (1.95 mmol/L)
• C. Na+ 154 mEq/L (154 mmol/L)
• D. PO4-3 4.8 mg/dL (1.55 mmol/L)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The elevated serum sodium level (154 mEq/L) is consistent with the patient's neurologic symptoms of restlessness, agitation, and weakness, indicating a need for immediate action to prevent complications like seizures. The potassium level (3.4 mEq/L) and calcium level (7.8 mg/dL) are slightly off from normal but do not require immediate action. The phosphate level (4.8 mg/dL) is normal and not related to the symptoms presented by the patient.

4. A nurse in the outpatient clinic is caring for a patient who has a magnesium level of 1.3 mg/dL. Which assessment would be most important for the nurse to make?

• A. Daily alcohol intake
• B. Intake of dietary protein
• C. Multivitamin/mineral use
• D. Use of over-the-counter (OTC) laxatives

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Daily alcohol intake. Hypomagnesemia is often associated with alcoholism, making it crucial for the nurse to assess the patient's alcohol consumption. Protein intake is not directly related to magnesium levels. The use of over-the-counter laxatives and multivitamin/mineral supplements would typically increase magnesium levels, which are not the focus when dealing with hypomagnesemia.

5. When assessing a male client, the nurse finds that he is fatigued, and is experiencing muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Based on these findings, the nurse plans to check the client's laboratory values to validate the existence of which?

• A. Hyperphosphatemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hypermagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Generalized weakness, muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias are manifestations of hypokalemia. Checking the potassium level is essential in this case. Hypocalcemia typically presents with facial muscle spasms, not the symptoms mentioned. Hypermagnesemia does not typically cause the symptoms described. It's important to note that orange juice is high in potassium and would be advisable to drink if the patient was hypokalemic. Loose stools are more commonly associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.

Similar Questions