Nursing Elites

1. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

2. What is the most appropriate intervention by the RN to address a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) who repeatedly checks to see if the door is locked and asks for reassurance?

• A. Set a specific limit on the number of times the client can check the door.
• B. Help the client find an alternative activity to perform.
• C. Provide consistent reassurance that the door is locked.
• D. Ignore the checking behavior and focus on other behaviors.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting a specific limit on the checking behavior is the most appropriate intervention for a client with OCD who repeatedly checks the door and seeks reassurance. This approach helps the client gradually reduce the compulsive behavior, promotes independence, and supports progress in treatment. Choice B is not the most suitable intervention as it does not directly address the compulsive checking behavior. Choice C, providing consistent reassurance, may reinforce the compulsive behavior and hinder treatment progress. Choice D of ignoring the behavior does not actively assist the client in managing their symptoms and addressing the underlying disorder.

3. When preparing to administer a prescribed medication to a homeless male at a community psychiatric clinic, the client tells the nurse that he usually takes a different dosage. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Tell him to take the medication then verify the dosage at the next healthcare team meeting.
• B. Withhold the medication until the dosage can be confirmed.
• C. Inform him that he may refuse the medication and document whether or not he takes it.
• D. Explain to the client that the dosage has been changed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Withholding the medication until the dosage can be confirmed ensures patient safety and accuracy in treatment.

4. A female client is brought to the emergency department after police officers found her disoriented, disorganized, and confused. The RN also determines that the client is homeless and is exhibiting suspiciousness. The client’s plan of care should include what priority problem?

• A. Acute confusion.
• B. Ineffective community coping.
• C. Disturbed sensory perception.
• D. Self-care deficit.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acute confusion is the priority problem because it directly impacts the client's safety and functioning. In this scenario, the client is disoriented, disorganized, and confused, which can pose immediate risks to her well-being. Ineffective community coping, disturbed sensory perception, and self-care deficit are not as urgent in this situation. Ineffective community coping focuses on the client's ability to manage stress related to the community, disturbed sensory perception pertains to alterations in sensory input, and self-care deficit involves the inability to perform activities of daily living independently. While these issues may also need addressing, acute confusion takes precedence due to the immediate safety concerns it presents.

5. During an annual physical at the corporate clinic, a male employee expresses to the RN that his high-stress job is causing trouble in his personal life. He mentions getting so angry while driving to and from work that he has considered 'getting even' with other drivers. How should the RN respond?

• A. “Anger is contagious and could lead to major confrontations.”
• B. “Try not to let your anger cause you to act impulsively.”
• C. “Expressing your anger to a stranger could lead to an unsafe situation.”
• D. “It seems like there are many situations that make you feel angry.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response for the RN is to advise the employee not to act impulsively when feeling angry. This approach helps the individual learn to manage anger in a constructive manner, reducing the likelihood of potential conflicts. Choice A is incorrect because although acknowledging that anger can escalate into confrontations is valid, it does not provide immediate guidance on managing the anger. Choice C focuses on the dangers of expressing anger to strangers but does not address the core issue of managing anger. Choice D simply acknowledges the employee's feelings without providing guidance on how to address the situation effectively.

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