HESI RN
Mental Health HESI
1. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?
- A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
- B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
- C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
- D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.
2. During a prenatal visit, the LPN/LVN discusses with a client the effects of smoking on the fetus. When compared with nonsmokers, mothers who smoke during pregnancy tend to produce infants who have
- A. lower Apgar scores.
- B. lower birth weights.
- C. respiratory distress.
- D. a higher rate of congenital anomalies.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When mothers smoke during pregnancy, it is associated with intrauterine growth restriction, which leads to lower birth weights in infants. Maternal smoking can restrict the flow of oxygen and nutrients to the fetus, affecting its growth and development. This can result in babies being born with lower birth weights, which can have various health implications for the newborn. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as smoking during pregnancy is primarily linked to intrauterine growth restriction and lower birth weights in infants, rather than lower Apgar scores, respiratory distress, or a higher rate of congenital anomalies.
3. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed methimazole. The nurse should instruct the client that the purpose of this medication is to:
- A. Decrease thyroid hormone production
- B. Increase thyroid hormone production
- C. Suppress the immune system
- D. Prevent thyroid storm
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decrease thyroid hormone production. Methimazole works by inhibiting the synthesis of thyroid hormones, specifically by blocking the enzyme responsible for this process. By reducing the production of thyroid hormones, methimazole helps to normalize the elevated levels seen in hyperthyroidism. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B, 'Increase thyroid hormone production,' is inaccurate as methimazole actually decreases thyroid hormone production. Choice C, 'Suppress the immune system,' is unrelated to the mechanism of action of methimazole. Choice D, 'Prevent thyroid storm,' is not the primary purpose of methimazole; while it may help prevent worsening of hyperthyroidism, its main action is to reduce thyroid hormone levels.
4. The healthcare provider is applying a topical corticosteroid to a client with eczema. The healthcare provider should monitor for the potential of increased systemic absorption of the medication if the medication were being applied to which of the following body areas?
- A. Back
- B. Axilla
- C. Soles of the feet
- D. Palms of the hands
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The axilla has thinner skin, making it more permeable to topical medications. Areas with thinner skin, like the axilla, allow for higher systemic absorption of topical corticosteroids.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which finding indicates the need for immediate intervention?
- A. Use of accessory muscles
- B. Oxygen saturation of 94%
- C. Carbon dioxide level of 45 mmHg
- D. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A carbon dioxide level of 45 mmHg is concerning in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen, as it may indicate carbon dioxide retention and requires immediate intervention. Options A, B, and D are not the priority findings in this scenario. While the use of accessory muscles, an oxygen saturation of 94%, and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute are important to monitor in a client with COPD, they do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like an elevated carbon dioxide level does.