Nursing Elites

1. When a male client mentions his foot is hurting while watching TV with his wife, how should the nurse respond?

• A. Ask him to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
• B. Encourage him to wait until bedtime for the pill to help him sleep.
• C. Attend to an acutely ill client's needs first as the client is laughing.
• D. Instruct him in the use of deep breathing exercises for pain control.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to ask the client to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10. This helps the nurse assess the intensity of the pain and determine the appropriate pain medication. Encouraging him to wait or attend to another client's needs first are incorrect because pain management should be addressed promptly. Instructing on deep breathing exercises may be helpful but is not the initial step in addressing acute pain.

2. The nurse is attempting to pass an indwelling catheter in an adult male and is having difficulty. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse?

• A. Remove the catheter and reinsert it with the client positioned differently.
• B. Try a straight catheter instead.
• C. Try a smaller catheter.
• D. Discontinue the procedure and notify the physician.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: If resistance is encountered, the nurse should discontinue the procedure and notify the physician, as this may indicate an obstruction.

3. During the digital removal of a fecal impaction, the nurse should stop the procedure and take corrective action if which client reaction is noted?

• A. Temperature increases from 98.8° to 99.0° F.
• B. Pulse rate decreases from 78 to 52 beats/min.
• C. Respiratory rate increases from 16 to 24 breaths/min.
• D. Blood pressure increases from 110/84 to 118/88 mmHg.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During digital removal of a fecal impaction, a vagal response can occur due to stimulation of the anal sphincter. If the client experiences bradycardia (pulse rate decreases), the nurse should stop the procedure immediately and take corrective action to prevent any complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate a vagal response, which is the expected adverse reaction during this procedure.

4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
• B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
• C. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe.
• D. Position the client in high Fowler's position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (B) is the priority intervention for a client with COPD exacerbation to improve oxygenation. In COPD exacerbation, there is impaired gas exchange leading to hypoxemia, making oxygen therapy the initial priority. Administering bronchodilators (A) helps with bronchodilation but should come after ensuring adequate oxygenation. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing (C) and positioning the client in high Fowler's position (D) are also beneficial interventions, but the first step is to address the oxygenation needs of the client.

5. A client with a diagnosis of asthma is receiving albuterol (Proventil) via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased oxygen saturation.
• B. Decreased respiratory rate.
• C. Absence of audible wheezing.
• D. Improved exercise tolerance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased oxygen saturation (A) is the most direct indicator of the effectiveness of albuterol (Proventil) in improving breathing. Oxygen saturation reflects the amount of oxygen in the blood, showing that the albuterol is helping with air exchange in the lungs. While decreased respiratory rate (B), absence of audible wheezing (C), and improved exercise tolerance (D) are positive outcomes, they are secondary to oxygen saturation. Oxygen saturation directly reflects the improvement in the client's respiratory status and the effectiveness of the medication.

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