Nursing Elites

1. When assessing the health of a community, what is the most important information for the nurse to obtain?

• A. life expectancy of community members
• B. mortality rates in the community
• C. description of health problems by community leaders
• D. expressed needs of community members

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important information for a nurse to obtain when assessing the health of a community is the expressed needs of community members. This information helps in tailoring health interventions to address specific concerns directly expressed by the community. Options A and B focus on statistical data rather than individual needs. Option C, while valuable, may not always capture the full spectrum of health issues faced by the community as perceived by the residents themselves.

2. Which intervention by the community health nurse is an example of a secondary level of prevention?

• A. providing a needle exchange program at a community mental health clinic
• B. developing an educational program for clients with diabetes mellitus
• C. administering influenza vaccines to residents of a nursing home
• D. initiating contact notifications for sexual partners of an HIV client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering influenza vaccines to residents of a nursing home is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease or condition in its early stages to prevent complications. In this case, administering influenza vaccines helps prevent the spread of the flu among vulnerable individuals. Choices A, B, and D are not examples of secondary prevention. Providing a needle exchange program (Choice A) is a harm reduction strategy (tertiary prevention). Developing an educational program for clients with diabetes mellitus (Choice B) focuses on health promotion and primary prevention. Initiating contact notifications for sexual partners of an HIV client (Choice D) is a measure to prevent further transmission of the disease but is more aligned with tertiary prevention.

3. A client with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted with cirrhosis. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Jaundice.
• B. Ascites.
• C. Peripheral edema.
• D. Spider angiomas.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Peripheral edema in a client with cirrhosis can indicate fluid overload and worsening liver function, necessitating immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as respiratory distress, cardiac issues, or renal impairment. Jaundice (choice A) is a common manifestation of cirrhosis but may not require immediate intervention unless severe. Ascites (choice B) is also a common complication of cirrhosis that may require intervention but is not as urgent as addressing peripheral edema. Spider angiomas (choice D) are typically benign skin lesions associated with cirrhosis but do not require immediate intervention unless bleeding or rupture occurs.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has returned from surgery. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
• B. Oxygen saturation of 92%.
• C. Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C).
• D. Pain at the surgical site.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 99°F (37.2°C) in a postoperative client requires immediate intervention as it may indicate the presence of infection. Elevated temperature post-surgery can be a sign of surgical site infection or systemic infection, which can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. Monitoring and managing a fever in a postoperative client is crucial to prevent further complications. The other findings, such as a heart rate of 90 beats per minute, oxygen saturation of 92%, and pain at the surgical site, are common postoperative assessments that may not necessarily require immediate intervention unless they are significantly out of normal range or causing severe distress to the client.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing.
• C. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute.
• D. Barrel-shaped chest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute is an abnormal finding and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress, requiring immediate intervention. This rapid respiratory rate can signify inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Oxygen saturation of 88% is low but not as immediately concerning as a high respiratory rate, which indicates the body is compensating for respiratory distress. The use of accessory muscles for breathing and a barrel-shaped chest are typical findings in clients with COPD but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as they are more chronic in nature and may be seen in stable COPD patients.

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