Nursing Elites

1. A school nurse is developing a program to address bullying among students. Which component is most important to include?

• A. education on the effects of bullying
• B. training for teachers on how to handle bullying incidents
• C. a peer mentoring program
• D. a zero-tolerance policy for bullying

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Training for teachers is the most important component to include in addressing bullying among students. Teachers play a crucial role in identifying, intervening, and preventing bullying incidents. By providing teachers with training on how to handle bullying, they can effectively address such situations, support victims, and educate students on appropriate behavior. While education on the effects of bullying (Choice A) is important, teachers need practical skills to intervene. Peer mentoring programs (Choice C) and zero-tolerance policies (Choice D) are valuable but may not be as effective without teachers being equipped to address bullying incidents directly.

2. The healthcare professional is developing a health education program for adolescents on the dangers of smoking. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?

• A. showing graphic images of the effects of smoking
• B. inviting former smokers to share their experiences
• C. providing statistical data on smoking-related illnesses
• D. distributing pamphlets on smoking cessation resources

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Inviting former smokers to share their experiences is the most effective strategy because personal stories can have a powerful impact on adolescents and motivate them to avoid smoking. This approach makes the consequences of smoking more relatable and real, potentially influencing behavior change. Showing graphic images may be too harsh and could lead to desensitization or avoidance of the issue. Providing statistical data may not resonate as strongly with adolescents as personal stories. Distributing pamphlets, while informative, may not have the same emotional impact as hearing real-life experiences.

3. When caring for a client with a tracheostomy, which action should the nurse take first when performing tracheostomy care?

• A. Remove the inner cannula.
• B. Clean the stoma with normal saline.
• C. Change the tracheostomy ties.
• D. Suction the tracheostomy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Suctioning the tracheostomy is the priority action because it ensures a patent airway before proceeding with any other tracheostomy care interventions. This step helps clear secretions and maintain airway patency, which is crucial for the client's respiratory status. Removing the inner cannula, cleaning the stoma, or changing the tracheostomy ties can follow once the airway is clear. Therefore, options A, B, and C are secondary actions compared to suctioning the tracheostomy.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client is able to expectorate secretions easily.
• B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• C. The client's respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute.
• D. The client's arterial blood gases show a pH of 7.35.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy, an effective response is indicated by a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute. This suggests that the client is effectively oxygenating while maintaining an appropriate respiratory rate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because expectorating secretions easily, having an oxygen saturation of 92%, and arterial blood gases showing a pH of 7.35 are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of oxygen therapy in COPD. Oxygen saturation of 92% may still be suboptimal in COPD, and arterial blood gases showing a pH of 7.35 may not necessarily reflect the overall effectiveness of oxygen therapy.

5. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL.
• B. Serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L.
• C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg.
• D. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours indicates oliguria, which is a concerning sign of decreased renal perfusion and potential renal failure. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further deterioration of kidney function.\n\nChoice A (Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL) is elevated but not the most urgent concern in this scenario. Choice B (Serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L) reflects metabolic acidosis, which is expected in DKA but does not require immediate intervention. Choice C (Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg) is slightly elevated but not acutely concerning in the context of DKA.

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