Nursing Elites

1. A client is to have a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy to remove a large, invasive pituitary tumor. The nurse should instruct the client that the surgery will be performed through an incision in the:

• A. Back of the mouth.
• B. Nose.
• C. Sinus channel below the right eye.
• D. Upper gingival mucosa in the space between the upper gums and lip.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Upper gingival mucosa in the space between the upper gums and lip. A transsphenoidal hypophysectomy involves accessing the pituitary gland through an incision in the upper gingival mucosa, providing direct access to the pituitary gland without external scars. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the surgery is not performed through the back of the mouth, the nose, or the sinus channel below the right eye. It is crucial for the client to understand the specific location of the incision to ensure accurate preoperative education and expectations.

2. Which of the following is a common cause of chronic liver disease?

• A. Alcohol abuse.
• B. Hepatitis C infection.
• C. Obesity.
• D. Smoking.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hepatitis C infection is a common cause of chronic liver disease due to its long-term effects on the liver. Hepatitis C can lead to liver inflammation, fibrosis, cirrhosis, and even liver cancer. Alcohol abuse can also cause liver damage, but hepatitis C infection is specifically known for its chronic impact on liver health. Obesity and smoking, while detrimental to overall health, are not typically direct causes of chronic liver disease like hepatitis C infection.

3. When performing a health history on a patient who is to begin receiving a thiazide diuretic to treat heart failure, the nurse will be concerned about a history of which condition?

• A. Asthma
• B. Glaucoma
• C. Gout
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thiazide diuretics block uric acid secretion, leading to elevated levels that can contribute to gout. Therefore, patients with a history of gout should take thiazide diuretics with caution. Asthma (Choice A), Glaucoma (Choice B), and Hypertension (Choice D) are not directly contraindicated with thiazide diuretics, making choices A, B, and D incorrect.

4. A patient presents with severe chest pain radiating to the left arm. Which of the following diagnostic tests is the priority?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• C. Chest X-ray
• D. Serum electrolytes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a patient presenting with severe chest pain radiating to the left arm, the priority diagnostic test is an Electrocardiogram (ECG) to assess for myocardial infarction. An ECG can quickly identify changes indicative of ischemia or infarction, guiding prompt management. A Complete Blood Count (CBC) may provide some information but is not the primary test for evaluating chest pain related to myocardial infarction. A Chest X-ray can be useful in assessing lung pathologies or certain cardiac conditions; however, it does not provide immediate information on myocardial infarction, making it a secondary option in this scenario. Serum electrolytes may become important in later stages but do not offer immediate insights into myocardial infarction. Therefore, they are a lower priority compared to obtaining an ECG for timely diagnosis and intervention.

5. A client who experienced partial-thickness burns involving over 50% body surface area (BSA) 2 weeks ago has several open wounds and develops watery diarrhea. The client's blood pressure is 82/40 mmHg, and temperature is 96°F (36.6°C). Which action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Increase the room temperature.
• B. Assess the oxygen saturation.
• C. Continue to monitor vital signs.
• D. Notify the rapid response team.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is presenting with signs of sepsis, such as hypotension, hypothermia, and a recent history of partial-thickness burns with open wounds. The development of watery diarrhea further raises suspicion for sepsis. With a blood pressure of 82/40 mmHg and a low temperature of 96°F (36.6°C), the nurse should recognize the potential for septic shock. Notifying the rapid response team is crucial in this situation as the client requires immediate intervention and management to prevent deterioration and address the underlying septic process. Increasing the room temperature (Choice A) is not the priority as the low body temperature is likely due to systemic vasodilation and not environmental factors. While assessing oxygen saturation (Choice B) is important, the client's hypotension and hypothermia take precedence. Continuing to monitor vital signs (Choice C) alone is insufficient given the critical condition of the client and the need for prompt action to address the sepsis and potential septic shock.

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