HESI RN
Biology Practice Test
1. What is the most significant contributor to cellular function?
- A. Proteins
- B. Phospholipids
- C. Carbohydrates
- D. Fatty acids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Proteins. Proteins are the most significant contributor to cellular function as they play crucial roles in almost all biological processes. They act as enzymes that catalyze reactions, are involved in cell signaling pathways, and provide structural support to cells. Phospholipids (Choice B), while important for cell membrane structure, do not have the same diverse functions as proteins in cellular processes. Carbohydrates (Choice C) primarily serve as an energy source and structural components but are not as versatile in cellular functions as proteins. Fatty acids (Choice D) are essential components of cell membranes and energy storage molecules but do not have the same broad range of functions as proteins in cellular processes.
2. A client presents with a fungal urinary tract infection (UTI). Which assessments should the nurse complete? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Palpate the kidneys and bladder.
- B. Assess the medical history and current medical problems.
- C. Perform a bladder scan to assess post-void residual.
- D. Inquire about recent travel to foreign countries.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When assessing a client with a fungal UTI, the nurse should prioritize gathering information related to the medical history and current medical problems. Clients who are severely immunocompromised or have conditions like diabetes mellitus are more susceptible to fungal UTIs. Assessing the medical history helps identify risk factors and potential causes of the infection. While physical examinations like palpating the kidneys and bladder and performing a bladder scan may be necessary, they should follow the initial assessment of medical history. Inquiring about recent travel to foreign countries is less relevant in the context of a fungal UTI, as the focus should be on immediate medical factors predisposing the client to the infection.
3. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dl
- B. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
- C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
- D. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is concerning in a client with DKA as it may indicate worsening hyperkalemia, requiring immediate intervention. Elevated serum potassium levels can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. While elevated glucose and low bicarbonate are characteristic of DKA, hyperkalemia poses a higher immediate risk. Serum sodium within the normal range is not typically a primary concern in DKA.
4. At 20 weeks gestation, a client is scheduled for an ultrasound. In preparing the client for the procedure, the nurse should explain that the primary reason for conducting this diagnostic study is to obtain which information?
- A. Sex and size of the fetus.
- B. Chromosomal abnormalities.
- C. Fetal growth and gestational age.
- D. Lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The primary reason for an ultrasound at 20 weeks gestation is to assess fetal growth, gestational age, and anatomical development. This evaluation helps ensure the fetus is developing appropriately and can detect any potential issues that may require intervention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because at 20 weeks, the primary focus of the ultrasound is not to determine the sex of the fetus, detect chromosomal abnormalities, or assess the lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio. While these factors may be evaluated in pregnancy, they are not the primary reasons for an ultrasound at 20 weeks gestation.
5. Which of the following is NOT a strategy for family planning?
- A. Integrating family planning services with other Reproductive Health programs
- B. Expanding access to family planning through non-public delivery systems
- C. Targeting family planning services to priority groups
- D. Expanding programs of immunization
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Expanded programs of immunization are not considered a strategy for family planning. Immunization programs focus on preventing diseases through vaccines and are distinct from family planning strategies, which aim to help individuals and couples plan their desired family size and spacing of children. Choices A, B, and C are all valid strategies for family planning. Integrating family planning services with other reproductive health programs, expanding access to family planning through non-public delivery systems, and targeting family planning services to priority groups are common approaches to improve the availability and effectiveness of family planning services.