HESI RN TEST BANK

Pediatric HESI

What intervention should the nurse implement first for a male toddler brought to the emergency center approximately three hours after swallowing tablets from his grandmother's bottle of digoxin (Lanoxin)?

    A. Administer activated charcoal

    B. Prepare gastric lavage

    C. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram

    D. Give IV digoxin immune fab (Digibind)

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering activated charcoal is the priority intervention as it binds with digoxin, preventing further absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. This helps reduce the amount of digoxin available for systemic circulation and minimizes its toxic effects. Gastric lavage is no longer recommended due to potential complications and lack of evidence of efficacy. Obtaining an electrocardiogram may help assess the effects of digoxin toxicity, but it is not the initial priority. IV digoxin immune fab (Digibind) is used in severe cases of digoxin toxicity but is not the first-line intervention.

A 6-year-old boy with bronchial asthma takes the beta-adrenergic agonist agent albuterol (Proventil). The child's mother tells the nurse that she uses this medication to open her son's airway when he is having trouble breathing. What is the nurse's best response?

  • A. Recommend that the mother bring the child in for immediate evaluation
  • B. Advise the mother that overuse of the drug may cause chronic bronchitis
  • C. Assure the mother that she is using the medication correctly
  • D. Confirm that the medication helps to reduce airway inflammation

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse's priority is to reassure the mother that she is using albuterol correctly to open her son's airways during episodes of difficulty breathing. This reassurance helps build trust and ensures that the child receives the intended benefit of the medication. The answer choice recommending immediate evaluation (A) is not appropriate at this point as the mother is using the medication as prescribed. Advising about overuse causing chronic bronchitis (B) is incorrect and may cause unnecessary alarm. Confirming that the medication helps reduce airway inflammation (D) is not the best response because albuterol is a beta-adrenergic agonist used primarily for bronchodilation in acute asthma exacerbations, rather than for reducing inflammation.

A mother brings her 2-year-old son to the clinic because he has been crying and pulling on his earlobe for the past 12 hours. The child’s oral temperature is 101.2°F. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

  • A. Ask the mother if the child has had a runny nose
  • B. Cleanse purulent exudate from the affected ear canal
  • C. Apply a topical antibiotic to the periauricle area
  • D. Provide parent education to prevent recurrence

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a child with ear pain and fever, asking about a runny nose is important to assess if the ear pain is associated with a respiratory infection, such as otitis media. This information can guide further assessment and treatment decisions. Choice B is incorrect because cleansing purulent exudate should be done by a healthcare provider, not the nurse. Choice C is incorrect as topical antibiotics should only be applied under healthcare provider's orders. Choice D is not the priority at this moment, as the immediate concern is assessing the association between the ear pain and a possible respiratory infection.

A 4-year-old child is brought to the clinic with complaints of ear pain and fever. The practical nurse suspects otitis media. Which symptom supports this suspicion?

  • A. Clear nasal discharge.
  • B. Dry, hacking cough.
  • C. Tugging at the ear.
  • D. Sore throat.

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tugging at the ear is a common symptom in children with otitis media. It often indicates discomfort or pain in the ear, suggesting inflammation or infection in the middle ear. This behavior is frequently observed in young children who are unable to express their discomfort verbally, making it a significant clinical indicator for otitis media in this age group. Clear nasal discharge (Choice A) is more indicative of a cold or allergies, while a dry, hacking cough (Choice B) is not typically associated with otitis media. Although a sore throat (Choice D) can sometimes accompany ear infections, tugging at the ear is a more specific and reliable symptom in this case.

A 16-year-old adolescent is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of meningitis. The nurse notes that the client has a severe headache and photophobia. What is the nurse’s priority action?

  • A. Administer prescribed pain medication
  • B. Place the client in a dark, quiet room
  • C. Notify the healthcare provider
  • D. Encourage the client to rest

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The priority action for the nurse when a client with meningitis presents with a severe headache and photophobia is to place the client in a dark, quiet room. This intervention helps reduce stimuli that can exacerbate symptoms such as headache and photophobia. Creating a calm environment can provide relief and promote comfort for the client while also supporting their recovery. Administering pain medication may be necessary but ensuring a suitable environment takes precedence. Notifying the healthcare provider is important but is not the immediate priority. Encouraging rest is beneficial, but creating an appropriate environment to alleviate symptoms is the initial essential step.

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