Nursing Elites

1. What intervention should the nurse implement first for a male toddler brought to the emergency center approximately three hours after swallowing tablets from his grandmother's bottle of digoxin (Lanoxin)?

• A. Administer activated charcoal
• B. Prepare gastric lavage
• C. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram
• D. Give IV digoxin immune fab (Digibind)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering activated charcoal is the priority intervention as it binds with digoxin, preventing further absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. This helps reduce the amount of digoxin available for systemic circulation and minimizes its toxic effects. Gastric lavage is no longer recommended due to potential complications and lack of evidence of efficacy. Obtaining an electrocardiogram may help assess the effects of digoxin toxicity, but it is not the initial priority. IV digoxin immune fab (Digibind) is used in severe cases of digoxin toxicity but is not the first-line intervention.

2. When instilling ear drops in a 2-year-old child, how should the practical nurse (PN) position the earlobe to straighten the external auditory canal?

• A. Up and back.
• B. Down and back.
• C. Up and forward.
• D. Down and forward.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering ear drops to a child under three years old, it is essential to pull the earlobe down and back. This positioning helps straighten the external auditory canal, facilitating the proper administration of the ear drops. Pulling the earlobe down and back in young children aims to ensure that the medication reaches the intended area for optimal effectiveness.

3. During a well baby visit, the parents explain that a soft bulge appears in the groin of their 4-month-old son when he cries or strains during stooling. The infant is scheduled for surgical repair of the inguinal hernia in two weeks. What should the parent be instructed to do if the hernia becomes incarcerated prior to the surgery?

• A. Use a rectal thermometer to strain during stooling.
• B. Gently manipulate the hernia for reduction.
• C. Offer oral electrolyte fluids for comfort.
• D. Give acetaminophen or aspirin for crying.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the case of an incarcerated inguinal hernia, gentle manipulation can sometimes help in reducing it before surgery. This action should be taken cautiously and immediately followed by seeking medical attention. It is important to note that attempting reduction should be done by a healthcare professional, and parents should be advised to seek urgent medical care if the hernia becomes incarcerated. Using a rectal thermometer to strain during stooling (Choice A) is not the correct approach for an incarcerated hernia and can worsen the condition. Offering oral electrolyte fluids for comfort (Choice C) or giving acetaminophen or aspirin for crying (Choice D) are not appropriate interventions for an incarcerated hernia and may delay necessary medical treatment.

4. A 4-year-old child with a history of asthma is brought to the clinic with a complaint of cough and wheezing. The nurse notes that the child has been using a rescue inhaler more frequently over the past week. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Review the child’s asthma action plan
• B. Administer a dose of the rescue inhaler
• C. Instruct the parents to increase the dose of the controller medication
• D. Schedule a follow-up appointment in one week

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the best course of action for the nurse is to review the child's asthma action plan. By doing so, the nurse can assess the current asthma management, ensure that the child is using the rescue inhaler correctly, and make any necessary adjustments to the treatment plan. Reviewing the asthma action plan helps in identifying triggers, proper use of medications, and when to seek medical help. Administering a dose of the rescue inhaler without assessing the current management plan may not address the underlying issue. Instructing the parents to increase the dose of the controller medication without proper evaluation can lead to inappropriate medication adjustments. Scheduling a follow-up appointment in one week is not the immediate action needed to address the child's current symptoms.

5. A 6-month-old female is scheduled to receive diphtheria, tetanus toxoid, and acellular pertussis vaccine (DTaP) and IPV (inactivated poliovirus vaccine) immunizations. She is recovering from a cold but is otherwise healthy and afebrile. Her 5-year-old sister is receiving chemotherapy. Which considerations should the nurse make for this situation?

• A. DTaP and IPV can be safely given to the infant at the scheduled time.
• B. DTaP and IPV are contraindicated because the infant has a cold.
• C. IPV is contraindicated because her sister is immunocompromised.
• D. DTaP is contraindicated because her sister is immunocompromised.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: DTaP and IPV can be safely administered to a child with a mild illness like a cold, even if there is an immunocompromised family member, as these vaccines do not contain live viruses. It is important to ensure that the child is otherwise healthy and afebrile before administering the vaccines. The presence of a cold is not a contraindication for receiving DTaP and IPV vaccines. Choice A is correct because the infant can receive both vaccines as scheduled. Choice B is incorrect as having a cold does not contraindicate DTaP and IPV administration. Choice C is incorrect because IPV is not contraindicated due to the sister's immunocompromised status. Choice D is incorrect as both DTaP and IPV can be given in this scenario.

Similar Questions