HESI RN
HESI Pediatric Practice Exam
1. What is the best response for the nurse when a 2-year-old boy begins to cry as the mother starts to leave?
- A. Let me read this book to you.
- B. Two-year-olds usually stop crying the minute the parent leaves.
- C. Now be a big boy. Mommy will be back soon.
- D. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best response for the nurse in this situation is to help the child understand that the separation is temporary. Waving bye-bye to mommy can be reassuring to the child and make the separation process easier. It acknowledges the child's feelings while providing a positive and comforting interaction. Choice A may distract the child temporarily but doesn't address the underlying issue of separation anxiety. Choice B is inaccurate as children may continue to cry even after the parent leaves. Choice C diminishes the child's emotions and doesn't offer a supportive approach.
2. The nurse is assessing a 3-month-old infant who was brought to the clinic by the parents due to concerns about the infant’s feeding. The parents report that the infant has been vomiting after every feeding and has not gained any weight. What should the nurse assess first?
- A. Evaluate the infant’s feeding technique
- B. Check the infant’s hydration status
- C. Measure the infant’s abdominal circumference
- D. Review the infant’s growth chart
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing hydration status is crucial in an infant who is vomiting frequently, as dehydration can quickly become a serious issue. In this scenario, the infant's inability to retain feeds and lack of weight gain may indicate a potential risk of dehydration, making it essential to prioritize checking the infant's hydration status to prevent complications. Evaluating the feeding technique (Choice A) could be important but is secondary to addressing potential dehydration. Measuring the abdominal circumference (Choice C) and reviewing the growth chart (Choice D) are not the priority in this situation where dehydration is a primary concern.
3. A client with Addison's disease is experiencing an Addisonian crisis. The nurse should expect to administer which of the following medication?
- A. Insulin
- B. Hydrocortisone
- C. Levothyroxine
- D. Methimazole
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During an Addisonian crisis, the adrenal glands are not producing enough cortisol, leading to a life-threatening situation. Hydrocortisone, a glucocorticoid, is the medication of choice in managing an Addisonian crisis. It helps replace deficient cortisol levels, stabilize blood pressure, and prevent further complications. Insulin (Choice A) is not indicated in Addison's disease unless specifically needed for diabetes management. Levothyroxine (Choice C) is used in hypothyroidism, not in Addison's disease. Methimazole (Choice D) is used to manage hyperthyroidism, which is not related to Addison's disease or its crisis.
4. A nurse is reinforcing dietary teaching with a client who has iron deficiency anemia. The nurse should explain that which of the following food sources contains iron that is most easily absorbed by the body?
- A. Spinach
- B. Dried apricots
- C. Chicken
- D. Lentils
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Chicken.' Heme iron from animal sources, such as chicken, is more easily absorbed by the body compared to non-heme iron from plant sources like spinach, dried apricots, and lentils. While plant-based iron sources are beneficial, they are not as readily absorbed by the body as heme iron from animal products.
5. The nurse who is working on a surgical unit receives a change of shift report on a group of clients for the upcoming shift. A client with which condition requires the most immediate attention by the nurse?
- A. Gunshot wound three hours ago with dark drainage of 2 cm noted on the dressing.
- B. Mastectomy 2 days ago with 50 ml bloody drainage noted in the Jackson-Pratt drain.
- C. Collapsed lung after a fall 8 hours ago with 100 ml blood in the chest tube collection container
- D. Abdominal-perineal resection 2 days ago with no drainage on dressing who has fever and chills.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client who had an abdominal-perineal resection 2 days ago with no drainage on the dressing but is presenting with fever and chills requires immediate attention. This presentation raises concerns for peritonitis, a serious complication that necessitates prompt assessment and intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an immediate risk for a life-threatening condition like peritonitis, making them lower priority compared to choice D.