Nursing Elites

1. What is the best response for the nurse when a 2-year-old boy begins to cry as the mother starts to leave?

• A. Let me read this book to you.
• B. Two-year-olds usually stop crying the minute the parent leaves.
• C. Now be a big boy. Mommy will be back soon.
• D. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response for the nurse in this situation is to help the child understand that the separation is temporary. Waving bye-bye to mommy can be reassuring to the child and make the separation process easier. It acknowledges the child's feelings while providing a positive and comforting interaction. Choice A may distract the child temporarily but doesn't address the underlying issue of separation anxiety. Choice B is inaccurate as children may continue to cry even after the parent leaves. Choice C diminishes the child's emotions and doesn't offer a supportive approach.

2. An adolescent's mother calls the primary HCP's office to inquire about the results of her daughter's serum test that was drawn last week. Since it is the teenager's 18th birthday, how should the nurse respond to this mother's inquiry?

• A. Ask when the adolescent was last seen at the clinic
• B. Tell the mother to have the teenager call the clinic
• C. Provide the mother with the findings
• D. Explain that the information cannot be released without the 18-year-old's permission

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is to explain to the mother that the information cannot be released without the 18-year-old's permission. When an individual turns 18, they are legally considered an adult, and privacy laws mandate that their consent is required before sharing their medical information with others. It is crucial to respect the adolescent's autonomy and privacy rights. Choices A and C are incorrect because they involve disclosing the information without the individual's consent. Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the legal requirement for the adolescent's permission before sharing medical information.

3. Prior to discharge, the parents of a child with cystic fibrosis are demonstrating chest physiotherapy (CPT) that they will perform for their child at home. Which action requires intervention by the nurse?

• A. Plan to perform CPT when the child awakens in the morning.
• B. A cupped hand is used when percussing the lung field.
• C. A bronchodilator is administered before starting CPT.
• D. The child is placed in a supine position to begin percussion.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Placing the child in a supine position to begin percussion is incorrect for chest physiotherapy (CPT). This position is not effective for CPT as it may lead to improper drainage of secretions. The child should be in an appropriate sitting or slightly reclined position to ensure proper lung drainage during CPT. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate actions for chest physiotherapy. Performing CPT when the child awakens helps in clearing secretions, using a cupped hand during percussion is a proper technique to promote secretion movement, and administering a bronchodilator before CPT can help open up the airways for better clearance.

4. The healthcare provider is providing postoperative care to a 4-year-old child who underwent tonsillectomy. The provider notices that the child is frequently swallowing. What should the provider do first?

• A. Check the child’s throat for signs of bleeding
• B. Offer the child ice chips to soothe the throat
• C. Elevate the head of the child’s bed
• D. Administer prescribed pain medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Frequent swallowing after tonsillectomy may indicate bleeding, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. Checking the child’s throat for signs of bleeding is the priority to ensure timely identification and management of any potential bleeding complications.

5. An 8-year-old male client with nephrotic syndrome is receiving salt-poor human albumin IV. Which findings indicate to the nurse that the child is manifesting a therapeutic response?

• A. Decreased urinary output
• B. Decreased periorbital edema
• C. Increased periods of rest
• D. Weight gain of 0.5 kg/day

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome treatment, decreased periorbital edema is a positive therapeutic response as it indicates a reduction in fluid retention. Periorbital edema is a common symptom of nephrotic syndrome due to fluid accumulation, so a decrease in this swelling signifies an improvement in the condition.

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