Nursing Elites

1. What is the best response for the nurse when a 2-year-old boy begins to cry as the mother starts to leave?

• A. Let me read this book to you.
• B. Two-year-olds usually stop crying the minute the parent leaves.
• C. Now be a big boy. Mommy will be back soon.
• D. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response for the nurse in this situation is to help the child understand that the separation is temporary. Waving bye-bye to mommy can be reassuring to the child and make the separation process easier. It acknowledges the child's feelings while providing a positive and comforting interaction. Choice A may distract the child temporarily but doesn't address the underlying issue of separation anxiety. Choice B is inaccurate as children may continue to cry even after the parent leaves. Choice C diminishes the child's emotions and doesn't offer a supportive approach.

2. What age-appropriate play activity should the practical nurse suggest to the parents of a 7-month-old infant to encourage visual stimulation?

• A. Play peek-a-boo.
• B. Play pat-a-cake.
• C. Imitate animal sounds.
• D. Show how to clap hands.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The practical nurse should suggest playing peek-a-boo to the parents of a 7-month-old infant to encourage visual stimulation. Peek-a-boo is a suitable game for this age group as it helps develop visual tracking skills and the concept of object permanence. By covering and uncovering their face or a toy, the infant learns that things still exist even when they cannot be seen, promoting cognitive development and visual engagement.

3. An 8-year-old male client with nephrotic syndrome is receiving salt-poor human albumin IV. Which findings indicate to the nurse that the child is manifesting a therapeutic response?

• A. Decreased urinary output
• B. Decreased periorbital edema
• C. Increased periods of rest
• D. Weight gain of 0.5 kg/day

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome treatment, decreased periorbital edema is a positive therapeutic response as it indicates a reduction in fluid retention. Periorbital edema is a common symptom of nephrotic syndrome due to fluid accumulation, so a decrease in this swelling signifies an improvement in the condition.

4. What information should the nurse provide the parents of a 3-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) who are concerned about having more children?

• A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family.
• B. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated, leading to muscle damage.
• C. The mother's lack of the protein dystrophin can impact the XXXX muscle groups in males.
• D. Birth trauma during a breech vaginal birth can damage the spinal cord, resulting in muscle weakness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder that primarily affects male children in the family. Since it is X-linked, sons inherit the mutation from their mothers who are carriers of the abnormal gene. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the parents that any future sons they have would have a 50% chance of inheriting the mutation and having DMD, while daughters would have a 50% chance of being carriers like the mother.

5. A 12-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of osteomyelitis. Which finding should the nurse expect during the assessment?

• A. Localized pain and swelling
• B. Generalized joint stiffness
• C. Pain in the muscles
• D. Limited range of motion in the limbs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In osteomyelitis, an infection of the bone, patients typically present with localized pain, swelling, and warmth over the affected bone. This is due to the inflammatory response in the bone tissue. Generalized joint stiffness, pain in the muscles, and limited range of motion in the limbs are not specific to osteomyelitis and are more commonly associated with other conditions.

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