Nursing Elites

1. What is the best response for the nurse when a 2-year-old boy begins to cry as the mother starts to leave?

• A. Let me read this book to you.
• B. Two-year-olds usually stop crying the minute the parent leaves.
• C. Now be a big boy. Mommy will be back soon.
• D. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response for the nurse in this situation is to help the child understand that the separation is temporary. Waving bye-bye to mommy can be reassuring to the child and make the separation process easier. It acknowledges the child's feelings while providing a positive and comforting interaction. Choice A may distract the child temporarily but doesn't address the underlying issue of separation anxiety. Choice B is inaccurate as children may continue to cry even after the parent leaves. Choice C diminishes the child's emotions and doesn't offer a supportive approach.

2. The nurse is assessing a 4-year-old child who is brought to the clinic for a routine checkup. The child’s parent reports that the child has been more irritable and less active over the past week. The nurse notes a petechial rash on the child’s trunk and extremities. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Ask the parent about recent exposure to contagious diseases
• B. Review the child’s immunization record
• C. Measure the child’s temperature
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the child's presentation with irritability, decreased activity, and a petechial rash raises concern for a serious condition like meningitis. Petechial rash can be indicative of meningitis or other critical illnesses. Therefore, the nurse's priority should be to notify the healthcare provider immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and appropriate management. Asking about recent exposure to contagious diseases may be relevant later but is not the most urgent action. Reviewing the child's immunization record and measuring the temperature can provide valuable information but should not take precedence over the need to address the potential serious condition indicated by the petechial rash.

3. The parents of a 15-month-old boy tell the nurse that they are concerned because their son brings his spoon to his mouth but does not turn it over. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Discuss the possibility of a referral to a specialist
• B. Question the parents about their concern
• C. Advise the parents on proper spoon handling techniques for the child
• D. Recommend extending mealtimes to allow the child to finish eating

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The initial action for the nurse is to question the parents about their concerns. By doing so, the nurse can gather more information to understand the situation better. This helps in determining if the child's behavior is within normal development or if further action or referrals are necessary. Choice A is incorrect as it jumps to a specialist referral without fully assessing the situation first. Choice C is also incorrect because assuming the parents need advice on proper spoon handling techniques may not be the case. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the core concern raised by the parents.

4. When caring for a 5-year-old child with a history of seizures who suddenly begins to have a tonic-clonic seizure, what should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Insert an oral airway
• C. Turn the child to the side
• D. Start an IV line

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the priority action is to turn the child to the side. This helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration of secretions or vomitus. It also helps in keeping the airway clear and promotes safety during the seizure episode. Administering oxygen, inserting an oral airway, and starting an IV line are important interventions but should follow the initial step of positioning the child to prevent airway obstruction.

5. What is the priority intervention for a 16-year-old client with a history of depression who is brought to the emergency department after taking an overdose of acetaminophen?

• A. Administer activated charcoal
• B. Place the client on continuous cardiac monitoring
• C. Prepare for gastric lavage
• D. Administer N-acetylcysteine as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority intervention for a client who has taken an acetaminophen overdose is to administer N-acetylcysteine promptly. N-acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and helps prevent liver damage. Activated charcoal may be used in certain cases, but N-acetylcysteine takes precedence as it directly counteracts the toxic effects of acetaminophen. Continuous cardiac monitoring and gastric lavage are not the priority interventions for acetaminophen overdose. Administering N-acetylcysteine is crucial to prevent liver damage and address the overdose, making it the most urgent action in this scenario.

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