HESI RN
Pediatric HESI
1. When should the surgical correction of hypospadias in a newborn infant typically be done?
- A. Repair should be done by one month to prevent bladder infection.
- B. To form a proper urethra repair, it should be done after sexual maturity.
- C. Repairs typically should be done before the child is potty trained.
- D. Delaying the repair until school age reduces castration fears.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Surgical repairs for hypospadias are typically recommended to be performed before the child is potty trained. This timing helps in avoiding complications, ensures better outcomes, and makes the surgical process smoother. Early correction also minimizes the psychological impact on the child regarding genital differences and can improve long-term psychological well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because repairing hypospadias at one month to prevent bladder infection, after sexual maturity to form a proper urethra, or delaying the repair until school age to reduce castration fears are not the standard recommendations. The optimal timing for surgical correction is before the child is potty trained to achieve the best results and psychological outcomes.
2. What instructions should the nurse provide to the parents about the treatment of head lice in a 3-year-old boy who has been confirmed to have head lice?
- A. Wash the child's bed linens and clothing in hot soapy water.
- B. Dispose of the child's brushes, combs, and other hair accessories.
- C. Rewash the child's hair following a 24-hour isolation period.
- D. Take the child to a hair salon for a shampoo and shorter haircut.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide to the parents is to wash the child's bed linens and clothing in hot soapy water. This is essential to eliminate head lice as they can survive on bedding and clothing. It is also important to wash any other items that the child may have used or come into contact with, such as brushes and combs, to prevent reinfestation. Rewashing the child's hair following an isolation period is not necessary, and taking the child to a hair salon for a shampoo and shorter haircut is not a recommended treatment for head lice.
3. A 2-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Determine the pulse deficit.
- B. Administer the scheduled dose.
- C. Calculate the safe dose range.
- D. Review the serum digoxin level.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario. The nurse obtained an apical heart rate of 128 bpm, which is within the expected range for a 2-year-old child. Therefore, there is no immediate concern to withhold the scheduled dose of digoxin. Determining the pulse deficit is not necessary as the heart rate is appropriate. Calculating the safe dose range is not needed as the current dose is within the therapeutic range. Reviewing the serum digoxin level may be indicated later for monitoring but is not urgent based on the heart rate assessment. Administering the scheduled dose of digoxin is the correct action at this time.
4. What is the recommended analgesia for preparing a school-age child for a lumbar puncture (LP)?
- A. Ondansetron (Zofran) 4 mg / 5 ml PO TID.
- B. Codeine 10 mg PO 30 minutes before the procedure.
- C. A transdermal fentanyl (Duragesic) patch immediately before the procedure.
- D. EMLA (eutectic mixtures of local anesthetics) 2.5 hours before the procedure.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: For a lumbar puncture in a school-age child, EMLA cream should be applied 2.5 hours before the procedure. EMLA is commonly used to numb the skin, reducing pain and discomfort for the child during the procedure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because ondansetron is an antiemetic, codeine is an opioid analgesic that may not be suitable for children, and transdermal fentanyl is a strong opioid that is not typically used for local anesthesia in children undergoing lumbar puncture.
5. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarctation of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?
- A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
- B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
- C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
- D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left to right shunt
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The findings are consistent with coarctation of the aorta, where narrowing of the aorta leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities. This results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanisms of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically involves narrowing of the aortic lumen reducing blood flow to the lower extremities.
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