Nursing Elites

1. When should the surgical correction of hypospadias in a newborn infant typically be done?

• A. Repair should be done by one month to prevent bladder infection.
• B. To form a proper urethra repair, it should be done after sexual maturity.
• C. Repairs typically should be done before the child is potty trained.
• D. Delaying the repair until school age reduces castration fears.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Surgical repairs for hypospadias are typically recommended to be performed before the child is potty trained. This timing helps in avoiding complications, ensures better outcomes, and makes the surgical process smoother. Early correction also minimizes the psychological impact on the child regarding genital differences and can improve long-term psychological well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because repairing hypospadias at one month to prevent bladder infection, after sexual maturity to form a proper urethra, or delaying the repair until school age to reduce castration fears are not the standard recommendations. The optimal timing for surgical correction is before the child is potty trained to achieve the best results and psychological outcomes.

2. A mother brings her 3-week-old infant to the clinic because the baby vomits after eating and always seems hungry. Further assessment indicates that the infant's vomiting is projectile, and the child seems listless. Which additional assessment finding indicates the possibility of a life-threatening complication?

• A. Irregular palpable pulse
• B. Hyperactive bowel sounds
• C. Underweight for age
• D. Crying without tears

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crying without tears is a sign of severe dehydration, which is a potentially life-threatening complication in infants with projectile vomiting. Dehydration can rapidly progress in infants, leading to serious consequences if not promptly addressed. The combination of projectile vomiting, listlessness, and absence of tears when crying should raise concerns about severe dehydration and the need for urgent intervention to prevent further complications.

3. When caring for a child experiencing severe asthma symptoms, which medication should the practical nurse anticipate being administered first?

• A. Inhaled corticosteroids.
• B. Oral corticosteroids.
• C. Short-acting beta agonists.
• D. Leukotriene receptor antagonists.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the management of acute asthma exacerbations, the first-line medication for quick relief of bronchoconstriction is a short-acting beta agonist, such as albuterol. These medications help to rapidly open up the airways, providing immediate relief to the patient. Inhaled corticosteroids are more commonly used for long-term control of asthma symptoms, while oral corticosteroids and leukotriene receptor antagonists are often reserved for more severe or chronic cases. Therefore, in a child experiencing severe asthma symptoms, the practical nurse should anticipate the administration of short-acting beta agonists as the initial intervention to provide quick relief and improve breathing.

4. During a well-baby exam, a nurse finds that a 2-month-old's right testicle is not descended into the scrotum, but the left one is palpable. What should the nurse do?

• A. Ask if the right testis has been seen in the scrotum before
• B. Address potential concerns about future fertility
• C. Schedule an ultrasound to confirm the position of the testicle
• D. Prepare to obtain a urine specimen for culture

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask if the right testis has been seen in the scrotum before. The initial step in managing an undescended testicle is to determine if it has been previously observed in the scrotum or if this is a new finding. This information is crucial in deciding the next course of action. Choice B is incorrect because addressing future fertility concerns comes after confirming the status of the testicle. Choice C is unnecessary at this stage as the first step is to gather more history. Choice D is unrelated to the issue described and is not indicated in this scenario.

5. What is the recommended analgesia for preparing a school-age child for a lumbar puncture (LP)?

• A. Ondansetron (Zofran) 4 mg / 5 ml PO TID.
• B. Codeine 10 mg PO 30 minutes before the procedure.
• C. A transdermal fentanyl (Duragesic) patch immediately before the procedure.
• D. EMLA (eutectic mixtures of local anesthetics) 2.5 hours before the procedure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a lumbar puncture in a school-age child, EMLA cream should be applied 2.5 hours before the procedure. EMLA is commonly used to numb the skin, reducing pain and discomfort for the child during the procedure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because ondansetron is an antiemetic, codeine is an opioid analgesic that may not be suitable for children, and transdermal fentanyl is a strong opioid that is not typically used for local anesthesia in children undergoing lumbar puncture.

Similar Questions