Nursing Elites

1. When should the surgical correction of hypospadias in a newborn infant typically be done?

• A. Repair should be done by one month to prevent bladder infection.
• B. To form a proper urethra repair, it should be done after sexual maturity.
• C. Repairs typically should be done before the child is potty trained.
• D. Delaying the repair until school age reduces castration fears.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Surgical repairs for hypospadias are typically recommended to be performed before the child is potty trained. This timing helps in avoiding complications, ensures better outcomes, and makes the surgical process smoother. Early correction also minimizes the psychological impact on the child regarding genital differences and can improve long-term psychological well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because repairing hypospadias at one month to prevent bladder infection, after sexual maturity to form a proper urethra, or delaying the repair until school age to reduce castration fears are not the standard recommendations. The optimal timing for surgical correction is before the child is potty trained to achieve the best results and psychological outcomes.

2. A 16-year-old male client who has been treated in the past for a seizure disorder is admitted to the hospital. Immediately after admission, he begins to have a grand mal seizure. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain assistance in holding him to prevent injury.
• B. Observe him carefully.
• C. Call a CODE.
• D. Place a padded tongue blade between the teeth.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a grand mal seizure, the priority action for the nurse is to ensure the safety of the client. Observing the client carefully allows the nurse to monitor the seizure activity, the client's breathing, and any signs of distress without interfering with the seizure process. Restraining the client or placing objects in the mouth can lead to injury and should be avoided. Calling a CODE is not appropriate for a seizure as it is a normal response to the client's condition.

3. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a vaccine to a 5-year-old child. The child is visibly anxious and asks if the shot will hurt. What is the healthcare provider’s best response?

• A. It might hurt a little, but it will be over quickly
• B. It won't hurt at all, don't worry
• C. You're a big kid now, and big kids don't cry
• D. If you don't think about it, it won't hurt

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a child expresses fear or anxiety about receiving a vaccination, it is essential for the healthcare provider to provide honest and reassuring information. Choice A acknowledges the potential for some discomfort but also reassures the child that it will be over quickly. This response validates the child's feelings while also preparing them for the procedure. Choices B, C, and D either provide false reassurance, dismiss the child's feelings, or suggest avoidance, which are not appropriate responses in this situation.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a 6-year-old child diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. Which finding should the healthcare provider report promptly to the healthcare provider?

• A. Dark-colored urine
• B. Mild periorbital edema
• C. Blood pressure of 150/95 mm Hg
• D. Urine output of 250 mL in 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypertension is a serious complication of glomerulonephritis, as it can lead to further renal damage. A blood pressure reading of 150/95 mm Hg is elevated and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for immediate management to prevent complications. Dark-colored urine can be a common symptom of glomerulonephritis due to blood in the urine but is not as urgent as managing hypertension. Mild periorbital edema can also be seen in glomerulonephritis but is not as concerning as elevated blood pressure. Urine output of 250 mL in 24 hours indicates oliguria, which is a concern, but addressing hypertension takes priority to prevent further renal damage.

5. A child with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) who is receiving chemotherapy via a subclavian IV infusion has an oral temperature of 103 degrees. In assessing the IV site, the nurse determines that there are no signs of infection at the site. Which intervention is the most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Obtain a specimen for blood cultures.
• B. Assess the CBC.
• C. Monitor the oral temperature every hour.
• D. Administer acetaminophen as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Obtaining a specimen for blood cultures is crucial in this situation as it helps identify the source of infection, if present, and guide appropriate treatment. This is important in a child with leukemia receiving chemotherapy to prevent potential complications and ensure timely intervention. Assessing the CBC may provide overall information on the child's condition but may not specifically identify a potential infection. Monitoring the oral temperature is important but obtaining blood cultures takes precedence in this scenario. Administering acetaminophen can help reduce fever but does not address the need to identify a possible infection source.

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