HESI RN
Pediatric HESI
1. When should the surgical correction of hypospadias in a newborn infant typically be done?
- A. Repair should be done by one month to prevent bladder infection.
- B. To form a proper urethra repair, it should be done after sexual maturity.
- C. Repairs typically should be done before the child is potty trained.
- D. Delaying the repair until school age reduces castration fears.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Surgical repairs for hypospadias are typically recommended to be performed before the child is potty trained. This timing helps in avoiding complications, ensures better outcomes, and makes the surgical process smoother. Early correction also minimizes the psychological impact on the child regarding genital differences and can improve long-term psychological well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because repairing hypospadias at one month to prevent bladder infection, after sexual maturity to form a proper urethra, or delaying the repair until school age to reduce castration fears are not the standard recommendations. The optimal timing for surgical correction is before the child is potty trained to achieve the best results and psychological outcomes.
2. A patient has begun taking spironolactone (Aldactone) in addition to a thiazide diuretic. With the addition of the spironolactone, the nurse will counsel this patient to
- A. not take a potassium supplement daily.
- B. recognize that abdominal cramping is a common side effect.
- C. report decreased urine output to the provider.
- D. take these medications in the morning.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When combining a potassium-sparing diuretic like spironolactone with a thiazide diuretic, there is an increased risk of hyperkalemia, especially in patients with poor renal function. Therefore, the patient should be educated to report any decrease in urine output, which could indicate a potential issue with kidney function. Choice A is incorrect because taking additional potassium supplements can further increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice B is incorrect as abdominal cramping is not a common side effect of spironolactone. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of medication administration is not directly related to the addition of spironolactone and thiazide diuretic; there is no specific recommendation to take these medications only at bedtime.
3. What is the mechanism of action of corticotropin (Acthar) when prescribed as replacement therapy for a male client who has undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor?
- A. It decreases cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production and affects the metabolic rate of target organs.
- B. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to inhibit enzymatic actions.
- C. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to produce enzymatic actions that affect protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism.
- D. It regulates the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corticotropin (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol and other hormones, affecting protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism. Choice A is incorrect because corticotropin does not decrease cAMP production; instead, it stimulates enzymatic actions. Choice B is incorrect because corticotropin does not inhibit enzymatic actions but rather produces enzymatic actions. Choice D is incorrect because corticotropin's mechanism of action does not involve regulating the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.
4. An older adult client visits the community health clinic and reports the onset of pain, redness, and swelling of the right eye. Which question is most important for the clinic nurse to ask the client?
- A. Do you have any discharge from the eye?
- B. Have you started any new prescriptions?
- C. Are all of your immunizations current?
- D. How often do you wash your hands?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important question for the nurse to ask the client is whether they have started any new prescriptions. New medications can have side effects that include eye issues, so it is crucial to determine if there is a potential link. Asking about discharge from the eye (Choice A) may be relevant but does not address the possibility of medication side effects. Inquiring about immunizations (Choice C) and handwashing frequency (Choice D) is important for overall health but is less directly related to the eye symptoms described by the client.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with a history of hypertension who is currently taking a diuretic. Which assessment finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
- B. Blood pressure of 148/90 mmHg
- C. Pulse rate of 62 beats per minute
- D. Blood glucose level of 130 mg/dl
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is low and places the client at risk for cardiac arrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. Hypokalemia can result from diuretic use and can lead to serious complications such as irregular heart rhythms. Monitoring and correcting potassium levels are crucial in preventing adverse cardiac events. The other options, though important, do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the low potassium level.