HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam Questions And Answers
1. The placenta is developed from which part of the trophoblast?
- A. Chorionic Frondosum
- B. Anchoring Villi
- C. Chorionic Laeve
- D. Body Stalk
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chorionic Frondosum. The placenta is developed from the chorionic frondosum part of the trophoblast. This structure gives rise to the fetal part of the placenta. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Anchoring Villi are projections from the chorionic plate that attach the placenta to the uterine wall. Chorionic Laeve refers to the smooth chorion that covers the fetal surface of the placenta. The Body Stalk is a structure that connects the early embryo to the trophoblastic pole of the blastocyst.
2. Which of the following is subsidiary uterine support?
- A. Suspensory ligament
- B. Cardinal ligament
- C. Transcervical ligament
- D. Maklouf ligament
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cardinal ligament. The cardinal ligament is a primary uterine support structure that helps to anchor the uterus in place. The suspensory ligament also provides support for the uterus but is not considered a subsidiary uterine support. The transcervical ligament does not exist in anatomical terminology. The Maklouf ligament is a fictitious term and not recognized as a subsidiary uterine support structure.
3. During the counseling session, you can also use the acronym, CLEAR. The letter E stands for:
- A. Encourage and assure the client of effective use of the method
- B. Explain how to use the method
- C. Tell the client about modern FP methods available, and discuss each in detail
- D. Explain all possible complications
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Explain how to use the method.' In the acronym CLEAR, the letter E specifically refers to explaining how to use the method, emphasizing the importance of providing clear instructions and guidance to the client. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent what the letter E stands for in the given context. Encouraging and assuring the client, discussing modern FP methods in detail, and explaining possible complications are important aspects of counseling but do not align with the specific focus of 'Explain how to use the method,' as indicated by the acronym.
4. After fertilization, cell division occurs through a process of:
- A. Binary fission
- B. Meiosis
- C. Budding
- D. Mitosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After fertilization, the zygote undergoes cell division through the process of mitosis. Mitosis is the type of cell division that results in two daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell. Choice A, binary fission, is a form of asexual reproduction in prokaryotes, not the process that occurs after fertilization in multicellular organisms. Choice B, meiosis, is a type of cell division that leads to the formation of gametes with half the number of chromosomes, not the process that occurs after fertilization. Choice C, budding, is a form of asexual reproduction seen in some organisms like yeast, but it is not the process of cell division after fertilization.
5. Which of the following investigations is done in Pelvic Inflammatory Disease?
- A. Paracentesis
- B. Culdocentesis
- C. Hysterectomy
- D. Douching
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Culdocentesis is the correct procedure performed to assess the pelvic cavity, often used in the diagnosis of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease. Paracentesis involves the aspiration of fluid from the abdominal cavity, not typically done for PID. Hysterectomy is the surgical removal of the uterus and is not a diagnostic investigation for PID. Douching is a hygiene practice and not a diagnostic procedure for PID.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access