HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam Questions And Answers
1. The placenta is developed from which part of the trophoblast?
- A. Chorionic Frondosum
- B. Anchoring Villi
- C. Chorionic Laeve
- D. Body Stalk
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chorionic Frondosum. The placenta is developed from the chorionic frondosum part of the trophoblast. This structure gives rise to the fetal part of the placenta. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Anchoring Villi are projections from the chorionic plate that attach the placenta to the uterine wall. Chorionic Laeve refers to the smooth chorion that covers the fetal surface of the placenta. The Body Stalk is a structure that connects the early embryo to the trophoblastic pole of the blastocyst.
2. Which of the following is the most effective method of contraception?
- A. Barrier methods
- B. Hormonal pills
- C. Intrauterine devices (IUDs)
- D. Sterilization
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sterilization is considered the most effective method of contraception because it permanently prevents pregnancy. Barrier methods, hormonal pills, and IUDs are highly effective as well, but they are reversible methods and may have a higher failure rate compared to sterilization.
3. What does Informed Consent mean?
- A. A patient has the right to know what a procedure involves before it is performed.
- B. Forcing all patients scheduled for surgery to sign a consent form.
- C. Telling the patient to sign the consent form without explanation.
- D. Allowing patients to undergo procedures without their consent.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Informed Consent means that a patient has the right to be informed about what a procedure involves before it is performed. Choice B is incorrect because consent should not be forced, and patients should have the opportunity to understand what they are agreeing to. Choice C is incorrect as it goes against the essence of informed consent, which requires explanation. Choice D is incorrect as it contradicts the fundamental principle of requiring patient consent before procedures.
4. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) affects the fallopian tubes resulting in a condition called:
- A. Oophoritis
- B. Endometritis
- C. Salpingectomy
- D. Salpingitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) is known to affect the fallopian tubes, leading to inflammation, which is termed as salpingitis. Choice A, Oophoritis, refers to inflammation of the ovaries, not the fallopian tubes. Choice B, Endometritis, is inflammation of the endometrium, the inner lining of the uterus, not the fallopian tubes. Choice C, Salpingectomy, is a surgical procedure to remove a fallopian tube and is not a condition caused by PID.
5. Which of these methods can be used for the transfer of zygote or early embryo into the fallopian tube?
- A. GIFT
- B. IUT
- C. ZIFT
- D. ICSI
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, ZIFT (Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer). ZIFT involves transferring a zygote or early embryo into the fallopian tube. GIFT (Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer - A) involves transferring unfertilized eggs and sperm into the fallopian tube for fertilization to occur inside the woman's body, not a zygote or early embryo. IUT (Intrauterine Transfer - B) is not specifically for transferring the zygote or early embryo into the fallopian tube, but rather into the uterus. ICSI (Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection - D) is a technique where a single sperm is injected directly into an egg, not related to transferring embryos into the fallopian tube.
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