HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam Questions And Answers
1. The placenta is developed from which part of the trophoblast?
- A. Chorionic Frondosum
- B. Anchoring Villi
- C. Chorionic Laeve
- D. Body Stalk
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chorionic Frondosum. The placenta is developed from the chorionic frondosum part of the trophoblast. This structure gives rise to the fetal part of the placenta. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Anchoring Villi are projections from the chorionic plate that attach the placenta to the uterine wall. Chorionic Laeve refers to the smooth chorion that covers the fetal surface of the placenta. The Body Stalk is a structure that connects the early embryo to the trophoblastic pole of the blastocyst.
2. Which contraceptive option suppresses sperm motility and inhibits the implantation of the blastocyst?
- A. Copper-T
- B. Diaphragm
- C. Contraceptive pills
- D. Condom
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Copper-T. Copper-T is an intrauterine device that releases copper ions, which suppress sperm motility and inhibit the implantation of the blastocyst. This method mainly works by preventing fertilization and, if fertilization occurs, by making the endometrium less receptive to implantation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The diaphragm is a barrier method that prevents sperm from reaching the cervix; contraceptive pills mainly work by suppressing ovulation and altering cervical mucus to prevent sperm from reaching the egg; condoms are barrier methods that prevent sperm from entering the vagina.
3. Treatment for condylomata acuminata includes the following EXCEPT:
- A. Vulvectomy
- B. Podophyllin application
- C. Laser therapy
- D. Electrocautery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Vulvectomy is not a standard treatment for condylomata acuminata, which are genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). Surgical removal of the vulva (vulvectomy) is an extreme measure and not typically indicated for treating this condition. Choices B, C, and D are valid treatments for condylomata acuminata. Podophyllin application, laser therapy, and electrocautery are commonly used to remove or destroy genital warts caused by HPV. These treatments aim to eliminate the visible warts and clear the infection.
4. Inevitable abortion occurs when:
- A. The ovum dies in utero and the decidua capsularis remains intact.
- B. The cervix is open, and the products of conception are about to be expelled.
- C. The products of conception are expelled before the 20th week of gestation.
- D. The fetus dies and is expelled in the first trimester.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Inevitable abortion occurs when the cervix is open, and the products of conception are about to be expelled. This is a critical point in the process of spontaneous abortion, indicating that expulsion of the products of conception is imminent. Choice A is incorrect as it describes a missed abortion where the ovum dies but the decidua capsularis remains intact. Choice C is incorrect as it describes an incomplete abortion where the products of conception are expelled before the completion of 20 weeks of gestation. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a missed abortion where the fetus dies and is expelled in the first trimester.
5. The endometrial tissue of the cervix is arranged in folds known as:
- A. Racemose glands
- B. Rugae
- C. Arbor vitae
- D. Peritoneum
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The endometrial tissue of the cervix is arranged in folds known as rugae, not Arbor vitae. Rugae are commonly found in anatomical structures like the stomach and bladder to allow expansion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Racemose glands refer to branched compound glands, Arbor vitae is the tree-like appearance of the cerebellum, and Peritoneum is the serous membrane lining the abdominal cavity.
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