the nurse mixes 50 mg of nipride in 250 ml of d5w and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcgkgmin to a client weighing 182 pounds using a
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam

1. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which intervention should the healthcare provider implement to assess the client’s glycemic control?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Evaluating hemoglobin A1c levels is the most appropriate intervention to assess glycemic control in a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Hemoglobin A1c levels reflect the average blood glucose control over the past 2-3 months, providing valuable information for monitoring and managing diabetes. Monitoring fasting blood glucose levels (Choice A) is important for daily management but does not provide a long-term view like hemoglobin A1c. Checking urine for ketones (Choice B) is more relevant for assessing diabetic ketoacidosis. Assessing dietary intake (Choice D) is crucial for overall diabetes management but does not directly assess glycemic control.

3. During a routine assessment, an obese 50-year-old female client expresses concern about her sexual relationship with her husband. Which is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to ask the client to talk about specific concerns. This approach provides an opportunity for the client to express her worries openly, allowing the nurse to gather more detailed information for a comprehensive assessment and to address the client's concerns effectively.

4. While the nurse is discharging an adult woman who was hospitalized for 6 days for treatment of pneumonia and reviewing the prescribed medications, the client appears anxious. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the most important action for the nurse to implement is to instruct the client to repeat the medication plan. By using the teach-back method, the nurse can ensure the client's understanding of the prescribed medications and address any concerns or anxieties the client may have. This approach promotes patient engagement, active participation, and retention of important information, ultimately enhancing medication adherence and safety.

5. The daughter of an older woman who became depressed following the death of her husband asks, 'My mother was always well-adjusted until my father died. Will she tend to be sick from now on?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The successful resolution of a developmental crisis in the later years involves acceptance and adaptation, and the daughter should be reassured that recovery is likely.

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