the nurse mixes 50 mg of nipride in 250 ml of d5w and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcgkgmin to a client weighing 182 pounds using a
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam

1. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.

2. While changing a client’s post-operative dressing, the nurse observes a red and swollen wound with a moderate amount of yellow and green drainage and a foul odor. Given a positive MRSA result, what is the most important action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Initiating contact precautions is crucial in this situation to prevent the spread of MRSA infection. MRSA is a highly contagious bacterium that can spread through direct contact with an infected wound or by touching contaminated surfaces. By implementing contact precautions, the nurse can help contain the infection and protect other patients, healthcare workers, and visitors from being exposed to MRSA.

3. The health care provider has changed a client's prescription from the PO to the IV route of administration. The nurse should anticipate which change in the pharmacokinetic properties of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a medication is administered via the IV route, the absorptive process is bypassed, leading to a more rapid onset of action. This results in a faster effect of the drug. Choice A is incorrect because changing the route of administration does not necessarily lead to increased tolerance or the need for a higher dose. Choice C is incorrect as changing the route of administration does not directly affect the protein binding of a medication. Choice D is incorrect because increasing the therapeutic index would actually reduce the risk of toxicity, not increase it.

4. During the digital removal of a fecal impaction, the nurse should stop the procedure and take corrective action if which client reaction is noted?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During digital removal of a fecal impaction, a vagal response can occur due to stimulation of the anal sphincter. If the client experiences bradycardia (pulse rate decreases), the nurse should stop the procedure immediately and take corrective action to prevent any complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate a vagal response, which is the expected adverse reaction during this procedure.

5. After receiving written and verbal instructions from a clinic nurse about a newly prescribed medication, a client asks the nurse what to do if questions arise about the medication after getting home. How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To ensure safe medication use, the nurse should encourage the client to call the clinic nurse or health care provider if any questions arise. Direct communication with healthcare professionals involved in the client's care is crucial to address any concerns promptly and accurately, ensuring the client's safety and understanding of the prescribed medication.

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