Nursing Elites

1. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.

2. Before administering a client's medication, the nurse assesses a change in the client's condition and decides to withhold the medication until consulting with the healthcare provider. After consultation with the healthcare provider, the dose of the medication is changed, and the nurse administers the newly prescribed dose an hour later than the originally scheduled time. What action should the nurse take in response to this situation?

• A. Notify the charge nurse that a medication error occurred.
• B. Submit a medication variance report to the supervisor.
• C. Document the events that occurred in the nurse's notes.
• D. Discard the original medication administration record.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse acted appropriately by withholding the medication, consulting with the healthcare provider, and administering the newly prescribed dose, albeit with a delay. The correct course of action for the nurse is to document all these events in the nurse's notes. Documenting the sequence of actions taken is crucial for maintaining an accurate record of the client's care, ensuring transparency, and providing essential information for future reference and continuity of care. Notifying the charge nurse or submitting a medication variance report may not be necessary as the situation was managed appropriately, and discarding the original medication administration record is not recommended as it is part of the client's medical record and should be kept for documentation purposes.

3. While conducting an intake assessment of an adult male at a community mental health clinic, the nurse notes that his affect is flat, he responds to questions with short answers, and he reports problems with sleeping. He reports that his life partner recently died from pneumonia. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage the client to see the clinic's grief counselor.
• B. Determine if the client has a family history of suicide attempts.
• C. Inquire about whether the life partner had AIDS.
• D. Consult with the healthcare provider about the client's need for antidepressant medications.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client is exhibiting symptoms of normal grief, such as flat affect, withdrawal, and sleep disturbances, following the recent death of his life partner. It is crucial for the nurse to encourage the client to see the clinic's grief counselor. Grief counseling can provide the client with appropriate support and coping strategies during this grieving process, helping him navigate through his loss and emotions effectively.

4. When culturing a wound, the nurse should obtain the sample from which part of the wound?

• A. The outer edges of the wound.
• B. All necrotic sections of the wound.
• C. Areas containing purulent or pooled exudates.
• D. Any particularly painful area of the wound.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To collect a wound culture, the nurse should first clean the wound to remove skin flora and then insert a sterile swab from a culturette tube into the wound secretions.

5. Which action should the nurse implement when using the confrontation technique during a vision exam?

• A. Use an ophthalmoscope to observe the client's pupil constriction when a strong light is shone on it.
• B. Stand behind the client and direct the client to report when an object enters the peripheral field of vision.
• C. Display a series of four cards with printing of varying sizes to the client and ask which card the client sees most clearly.
• D. Sit facing the client, look directly at the client's face, and move an object inward from the periphery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a vision exam, the confrontation technique is used to assess peripheral vision. By sitting facing the client and moving an object inward from the periphery while looking directly at the client's face, the nurse allows the client to indicate when the object enters the visual field. This method helps in determining the extent of the client's peripheral vision accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe the appropriate method for using the confrontation technique during a vision exam. Choice A involves using an ophthalmoscope to observe pupil constriction, choice B involves testing the peripheral field of vision without the confrontation technique, and choice C describes the Snellen eye chart test for visual acuity, which is not related to the confrontation technique.

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