Nursing Elites

1. The parents of a 2-year-old child with a history of febrile seizures are being taught by the healthcare provider. Which statement by the parents indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. We should give our child acetaminophen when they have a fever.
• B. We should not place our child in a cool bath during a seizure.
• C. We should call 911 if the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes.
• D. We should try to keep our child’s fever under control.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing a child in a cool bath during a seizure is not recommended as it can be dangerous and may lead to accidental drowning or injuries. The priority during a febrile seizure is to ensure the safety of the child by placing them on a soft surface, removing any nearby objects that may cause harm, and gently turning their head to the side to prevent aspiration. Cooling measures like removing excess clothing can be employed, but immersing the child in a cool bath is not advised. Calling 911 if the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes is important to seek immediate medical assistance. Administering acetaminophen to reduce fever and trying to keep the child's fever under control are appropriate interventions which should be continued.

2. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left-to-right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.

3. What information should the nurse provide to parents of a 3-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy who inquire about the disease and future children?

• A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family
• B. The striated muscle groups of males can be impacted by a lack of the protein dystrophin in their mothers
• C. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated so muscle damage was incurred
• D. Birth trauma with a breech vaginal birth causes damage to the spinal cord, thus weakening the muscles

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder caused by mutations in the DMD gene on the X chromosome. This disorder primarily affects males because they have one X chromosome, inherited from their mothers, who may be carriers of the mutated gene. Females have two X chromosomes, providing a protective effect as the normal gene on one X chromosome can compensate for the mutated gene on the other. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the parents that Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which is why their son has the disease and why there is a risk of passing it on to future sons. Choice B is incorrect as it inaccurately implies that the lack of dystrophin in mothers impacts their sons' muscle groups. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests a viral infection caused the muscle damage, which is not the case with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Choice D is incorrect as it attributes the muscle weakness to birth trauma instead of the genetic nature of the disorder.

4. What is the priority action for a 2-year-old child with croup presenting with a barking cough and stridor?

• A. Administer a corticosteroid
• B. Obtain a throat culture
• C. Administer nebulized epinephrine
• D. Place the child in an upright position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority action for a 2-year-old child with croup and stridor is to administer nebulized epinephrine. Nebulized epinephrine helps reduce airway swelling, alleviate symptoms, and improve breathing by causing vasoconstriction and reducing upper airway edema. Administering a corticosteroid may be done but is not the priority in this scenario. Obtaining a throat culture is not necessary for the immediate management of croup. Placing the child in an upright position can aid in breathing but is not the priority action when the child is presenting with stridor.

5. Which statement by a school-aged client going to summer camp indicates the best understanding of the mode of transmission of Lyme disease?

• A. I'll cover my mouth with a wet cloth if there's too much dust blowing.
• B. Cuts and scrapes need to be washed out and covered right away.
• C. I'm not going to swim where the water is standing still or feels too hot.
• D. I have to wear long sleeves and pants when we're hiking around the pond.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Wearing long sleeves and pants is an effective measure to prevent tick bites, which can transmit Lyme disease. Ticks are commonly found in wooded areas and tall grass, so covering exposed skin helps reduce the risk of tick bites and subsequently lowers the risk of contracting Lyme disease. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the mode of transmission of Lyme disease. Option A pertains to respiratory protection against dust, Option B focuses on wound care, and Option C relates to water safety, none of which are directly related to preventing Lyme disease transmission.

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