Nursing Elites

1. What information should the nurse provide the parents of a 3-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) who are concerned about having more children?

• A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family.
• B. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated, leading to muscle damage.
• C. The mother's lack of the protein dystrophin can impact the XXXX muscle groups in males.
• D. Birth trauma during a breech vaginal birth can damage the spinal cord, resulting in muscle weakness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder that primarily affects male children in the family. Since it is X-linked, sons inherit the mutation from their mothers who are carriers of the abnormal gene. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the parents that any future sons they have would have a 50% chance of inheriting the mutation and having DMD, while daughters would have a 50% chance of being carriers like the mother.

2. A 7-year-old child with sickle cell anemia presents to the emergency department with severe pain in the arms and legs. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer prescribed pain medication
• B. Apply warm compresses to the affected areas
• C. Encourage the child to drink fluids
• D. Monitor the child’s oxygen saturation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a sickle cell crisis, pain management is a priority due to the severe pain experienced by the child. Administering prescribed pain medication is crucial to alleviate the pain and provide comfort to the child. Once pain is controlled, other comfort measures like applying warm compresses and encouraging fluid intake can be implemented. Monitoring oxygen saturation is important but not the priority action when dealing with severe pain in a sickle cell crisis.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a child for neurological soft signs. Which finding is most likely demonstrated in the child's behavior?

• A. Inability to move the tongue in a specific direction.
• B. Presence of vertigo.
• C. Poor coordination and sense of position.
• D. Loss of visual acuity.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Neurological soft signs in children often manifest as poor coordination and a sense of position. These signs can indicate underlying neurological issues and are important to assess in pediatric patients. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be associated with neurological soft signs in children. Inability to move the tongue in a specific direction may suggest a cranial nerve dysfunction rather than general neurological soft signs. Presence of vertigo is more related to inner ear disturbances or vestibular issues. Loss of visual acuity may indicate problems with the eyes rather than general neurological soft signs.

4. A 2-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine the pulse deficit.
• B. Administer the scheduled dose.
• C. Calculate the safe dose range.
• D. Review the serum digoxin level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario since the heart rate of 128 bpm is within an acceptable range for a 2-year-old child with heart failure. Monitoring for signs of digoxin toxicity is important; however, the immediate action required is to administer the scheduled dose as prescribed based on the heart rate assessment.

5. A 4-year-old child with a history of asthma is brought to the clinic with a complaint of cough and wheezing. The nurse notes that the child has been using a rescue inhaler more frequently over the past week. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Review the child’s asthma action plan
• B. Administer a dose of the rescue inhaler
• C. Instruct the parents to increase the dose of the controller medication
• D. Schedule a follow-up appointment in one week

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the best course of action for the nurse is to review the child's asthma action plan. By doing so, the nurse can assess the current asthma management, ensure that the child is using the rescue inhaler correctly, and make any necessary adjustments to the treatment plan. Reviewing the asthma action plan helps in identifying triggers, proper use of medications, and when to seek medical help. Administering a dose of the rescue inhaler without assessing the current management plan may not address the underlying issue. Instructing the parents to increase the dose of the controller medication without proper evaluation can lead to inappropriate medication adjustments. Scheduling a follow-up appointment in one week is not the immediate action needed to address the child's current symptoms.

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