HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam
1. The client is being taught how to perform active range of motion (ROM) exercises. To exercise the hinge joints, which action should the client be instructed to perform?
- A. Tilt the pelvis forwards and backwards
- B. Bend the arm by flexing the ulnar to the humerus
- C. Turn the head to the right and left
- D. Extend the arm at the side and rotate it in circles
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hinge joints, like the elbow, primarily allow movement in one direction, in this case, bending the arm. The correct action to exercise hinge joints is to bend the arm by flexing the ulnar to the humerus. This movement specifically targets the hinge joint and promotes its range of motion. Choices A, C, and D involve movements that do not specifically target hinge joints. Tilt the pelvis involves the ball-and-socket joints of the hip, turning the head involves the pivot joint of the neck, and extending the arm and rotating it in circles involve multiple joints including ball-and-socket and pivot joints.
2. A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?
- A. The client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute.
- B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
- C. The client reports shortness of breath.
- D. The client's respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A report of shortness of breath (C) indicates that the client is not tolerating the oxygen therapy well and may need an adjustment. Shortness of breath is a critical symptom in a client with COPD, as it signifies potential respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 14 (A) is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD and does not require immediate action. An oxygen saturation of 92% (B) is slightly lower but still acceptable in COPD patients. Although a respiratory rate of 24 (D) is higher, it is not as immediately concerning as shortness of breath in this context.
3. Following a craniotomy, why did the nurse position the client in low Fowler's position?
- A. To promote comfort.
- B. To promote drainage from the operation site.
- C. To promote thoracic expansion.
- D. To prevent circulatory overload.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Positioning the client in low Fowler's position after a craniotomy is essential to promote drainage from the operation site. This position helps prevent fluid accumulation, facilitates the removal of excess fluid or blood, and aids in the healing process. Choice A is incorrect because comfort, while important, is not the primary reason for this specific positioning. Choice C is incorrect as thoracic expansion is not the main concern following a craniotomy. Choice D is incorrect as circulatory overload is not typically addressed by positioning in low Fowler's position post-craniotomy.
4. When caring for an immobile client, what nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?
- A. Risk for fluid volume deficit.
- B. Impaired gas exchange.
- C. Risk for impaired skin integrity.
- D. Altered tissue perfusion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When caring for an immobile client, the nursing diagnosis with the highest priority is impaired gas exchange. This is because impaired gas exchange implies difficulty with breathing, which is essential for sustaining life. Adequate oxygenation is crucial for all bodily functions, and any impairment in gas exchange can lead to serious complications, making it the priority nursing diagnosis to address in an immobile client. Choices A, C, and D are important considerations as well when caring for an immobile client, but they are secondary to impaired gas exchange. Risk for fluid volume deficit may occur due to immobility, but ensuring proper gas exchange takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's immediate survival. Risk for impaired skin integrity is a concern in immobile clients but does not pose an immediate threat to life like impaired gas exchange. Altered tissue perfusion is also critical but is usually a consequence of impaired gas exchange, reinforcing the priority of addressing gas exchange first.
5. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which laboratory test result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the client’s respiratory function?
- A. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
- B. Complete blood count (CBC)
- C. Blood glucose levels
- D. Serum electrolyte levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Arterial blood gases (ABGs) are the most appropriate laboratory test to monitor respiratory function in a client with pneumonia. ABGs provide valuable information on oxygenation status, acid-base balance, and how well the lungs are exchanging gases. This information helps in assessing the effectiveness of ventilation and oxygenation, guiding treatment decisions, and evaluating the overall respiratory status of the client.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access