the nurse is reviewing laboratory results on a client with acute renal failure which one of the following should be reported immediately
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Nutrition HESI Practice Exam

1. The nurse is reviewing laboratory results on a client with acute renal failure. Which one of the following should be reported immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias and must be addressed promptly. The other options are not as urgent. A blood urea nitrogen level of 50 mg/dl may indicate kidney dysfunction but does not require immediate intervention. Hemoglobin of 10.3 g/dl may suggest anemia, which needs management but is not an immediate threat. A venous blood pH of 7.30 may indicate acidosis, which is concerning but not as acutely dangerous as hyperkalemia.

2. The nurse is caring for a client in hypertensive crisis in an intensive care unit. The priority assessment in the first hour of care is

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing pupil responses is crucial in a client with hypertensive crisis to monitor for signs of increased intracranial pressure, which can indicate potential neurological complications. While heart rate, pedal pulses, and lung sounds are important assessments, they do not take precedence over neurological assessments in this critical situation.

3. A child is admitted to the pediatric unit with a diagnosis of suspected meningococcal meningitis. Which admission orders should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the child in respiratory/secretion precautions first. Meningococcal meningitis is highly contagious, and respiratory precautions are essential to prevent the spread of the infection. Seizure precautions may be necessary but are not the priority upon admission. Monitoring neurologic status is important but not the initial action needed. While antibiotic therapy like Cefotaxime is crucial, implementing isolation precautions to prevent transmission takes precedence in this situation.

4. A 60-year-old male client had a hernia repair in an outpatient surgery clinic. He is awake and alert, but has not been able to void since he returned from surgery 6 hours ago. He received 1000 mL of IV fluid. Which action would be most likely to help him void?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assisting the client to stand by the side of the bed to void is the most appropriate action. This position can help stimulate voiding due to gravity and normal positioning. Having the client drink water (Choice A) may help, but assisting him to stand is more effective. Crede maneuver (Choice B) is not recommended as it can increase the risk of bladder trauma. Waiting for 2 hours (Choice D) without taking any action is not proactive in addressing the client's inability to void.

5. After a client was taken off the ventilator following surgery, they have a nasogastric tube draining bile-colored liquids. Which nursing measure will provide the most comfort to the client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing frequent oral care with a tooth sponge is the most appropriate nursing measure to provide comfort to a client with a nasogastric tube draining bile-colored liquids. This measure helps to maintain oral hygiene, prevent dryness, and enhance overall comfort. Allowing the client to suck on ice chips may not address oral hygiene needs, providing mints focuses more on breath freshness rather than comfort, and swabbing the mouth with glycerin swabs may not effectively address oral care needs.

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