Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is providing preconception counseling. Which supplement should the provider recommend to help prevent the occurrence of anencephaly?

• A. Folic Acid.
• B. Calcium.
• C. Iron.
• D. Vitamin D.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Folic acid supplementation before and during early pregnancy is crucial for reducing the risk of neural tube defects, including anencephaly. Anencephaly is a severe birth defect in which a baby is born without parts of the brain and skull. Folic acid plays a key role in neural tube development and can significantly lower the chances of such defects when taken prior to conception and in early pregnancy.

2. A client at 32-weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most indicative of an impending convulsion?

• A. 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia.
• B. Periorbital edema, flashing lights, and aura.
• C. Epigastric pain in the third trimester.
• D. Recent decreased urinary output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia, 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia are indicative of severe preeclampsia. These neurological signs suggest an increased risk for seizures, making option A the most indicative of an impending convulsion. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with an impending convulsion in a client with preeclampsia.

3. A newborn with a yellow abdomen and chest is being assessed. What should be the nurse's initial action?

• A. Assess bilirubin level.
• B. Administer phototherapy.
• C. Encourage feeding to help reduce bilirubin levels.
• D. Perform a bilirubin test every hour.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when assessing a newborn with a yellow abdomen and chest is to initially assess the bilirubin level. This helps determine the severity of jaundice in the newborn. Administering phototherapy (choice B) is a treatment intervention that follows the assessment. Encouraging feeding (choice C) can help with bilirubin excretion but is not the initial assessment. Performing a bilirubin test every hour (choice D) may not be necessary initially and could lead to unnecessary interventions.

4. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the charge nurse that a client who delivered a 7-pound infant 12 hours ago is reporting a severe headache. The client’s blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, respiratory rate is 18 breaths/min, heart rate is 74 beats/min, and temperature is 98.6°F (37°C). What action should the charge nurse implement first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the assessment findings.
• B. Administer analgesics as prescribed.
• C. Increase the client’s fluid intake.
• D. Monitor the client’s vital signs every hour.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A severe headache post-delivery could indicate a serious condition such as preeclampsia or a spinal headache, which requires immediate medical attention. Notifying the healthcare provider of the assessment findings allows for prompt evaluation and appropriate management of the client's condition.

5. After a client delivered vaginally 2 days ago, what information should you share with her if she wants to resume using her diaphragm for birth control?

• A. The diaphragm is the most effective form of contraception.
• B. The diaphragm must be refitted after childbirth.
• C. Vaseline lubricant should be used when inserting the diaphragm.
• D. The diaphragm should be inserted 2 to 4 hours before intercourse.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After childbirth, the diaphragm must be refitted to ensure a proper fit and effectiveness. Changes in the body post-delivery can affect the fit of the diaphragm, making it necessary to get refitted. Choice A is incorrect because while the diaphragm can be effective, it is not the most effective form of contraception. Choice C is incorrect because oil-based lubricants like Vaseline can damage latex diaphragms. Choice D is incorrect because the diaphragm should be inserted no more than 2 hours before intercourse, not 2 to 4 hours.

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