HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. The nurse is providing education to a client who experiences recurrent levels of moderate anxiety in response to situations and perceived stress. In addition to information about prescribed medication and administration, which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Practice using muscle relaxation techniques
- B. Take medication only when anxiety is at its worst
- C. Avoid interactions that trigger stress
- D. Engage in exercise during anxious periods
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Teaching relaxation techniques, such as muscle relaxation, helps the client manage anxiety more effectively. These techniques can be practiced regularly to reduce overall anxiety and can complement prescribed medications. Choice B is incorrect because medication should be taken as prescribed, not only when anxiety is at its worst. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding interactions that trigger stress may not always be feasible and does not teach the client coping mechanisms. Choice D is incorrect as engaging in exercise during anxious periods may not be the most effective strategy for managing moderate anxiety levels.
2. A client with chronic liver disease develops jaundice. What is the most important assessment the nurse should perform?
- A. Assess the client’s skin for lesions or sores.
- B. Monitor the client’s liver function tests.
- C. Assess for changes in mental status and behavior.
- D. Monitor the client’s urine output closely.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with chronic liver disease developing jaundice, the most important assessment the nurse should perform is to monitor the client’s urine output closely. Jaundice can indicate worsening liver function, so monitoring urine output helps assess kidney function and fluid balance, which are critical in chronic liver disease. Assessing the client’s skin for lesions or sores (Choice A) may be relevant for dermatological conditions but is not the priority in this case. Monitoring liver function tests (Choice B) is important but may not provide immediate information on the client’s current status. Assessing for changes in mental status and behavior (Choice C) is important for detecting hepatic encephalopathy but does not directly address the immediate concern of fluid balance and kidney function in the presence of jaundice.
3. A client with a prescription for DNR begins to manifest signs of impending death. After notifying the family of the client's status, what priority action should the nurse implement?
- A. Inform the healthcare provider
- B. Determine the client's need for pain medication
- C. Begin comfort measures
- D. Ensure all life-saving equipment is removed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct priority action for the nurse to implement in this scenario is to determine the client's need for pain medication. Ensuring that the client is comfortable and free from pain is crucial in end-of-life care, especially for a client with a Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order. This action prioritizes the client's comfort and dignity in their final moments. While informing the healthcare provider and beginning comfort measures are important aspects of care, pain management takes precedence as the immediate priority. Removing life-saving equipment is not appropriate at this stage as it goes against the client's wishes stated in the DNR order.
4. While assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility, which client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers?
- A. A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest
- B. An obese client who uses a wheelchair
- C. A client who had 3 episodes of incontinent diarrhea
- D. An 80-year-old ambulatory diabetic client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest. This client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to being malnourished and on bed rest, leading to decreased mobility and poor nutrition. This combination puts the client at significant risk for skin breakdown and pressure ulcers. Choice B is incorrect because although obesity is a risk factor for developing pressure ulcers, immobility and poor nutrition are higher risk factors. Choice C is incorrect as incontinence can contribute to skin breakdown but is not as high a risk factor as immobility and poor nutrition. Choice D is incorrect as an ambulatory client, even if diabetic, has better mobility than a bedridden client and is at lower risk for developing decubitus ulcers.
5. What breakfast selection indicates appropriate dietary management for osteoporosis?
- A. Pancakes with syrup and orange juice
- B. Bagel with jelly and skim milk
- C. Eggs with sausage and whole milk
- D. French toast with butter and syrup
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A bagel with jelly and skim milk is a calcium-rich and low-fat option that aligns with the dietary recommendations for managing osteoporosis. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones, so it is essential to consume an adequate amount of calcium while avoiding excess fat intake. Choices A, C, and D are not ideal for osteoporosis management as they either lack sufficient calcium, contain high fat content, or both.
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