Nursing Elites

1. A client with adrenal crisis has a temperature of 102°F, heart rate of 138 bpm, and blood pressure of 80/60 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
• B. Infuse intravenous fluid bolus.
• C. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.
• D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with adrenal crisis presenting with a high temperature, tachycardia, and hypotension, the priority action for the nurse to implement first is to infuse an intravenous fluid bolus. This intervention aims to address the hypotension by increasing the circulating volume and improving perfusion. Obtaining an analgesic prescription (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation. Administering an oral antipyretic (Choice C) may help reduce the fever but does not address the primary issue of hypotension. Covering the client with a cooling blanket (Choice D) may help with temperature control but does not address the hemodynamic instability caused by the adrenal crisis.

2. A client with a recent myocardial infarction is prescribed a beta-blocker. What side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Monitor the client for bradycardia.
• B. Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypotension.
• C. Monitor the client for signs of hyperglycemia.
• D. Monitor for signs of fluid retention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypotension.' Beta-blockers can lead to decreased heart rate, but bradycardia is not the primary side effect to monitor. Monitoring for bradycardia is more relevant when administering medications like digoxin. Hyperglycemia is associated with medications like corticosteroids, not beta-blockers. Fluid retention is a side effect seen with medications like corticosteroids or calcium channel blockers, not beta-blockers. Therefore, in a client taking a beta-blocker after a myocardial infarction, monitoring for hypotension is crucial due to the medication's mechanism of action.

3. The healthcare provider prescribes a sedative for a client with severe hypothyroidism. What is the best action for the nurse to take?

• A. Affirm the nurse's plan to review the prescription with the provider.
• B. Administer the sedative as prescribed.
• C. Advise the nurse to administer the medication as prescribed.
• D. Offer to administer the medication since the nurse is concerned.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to affirm the nurse's plan to review the prescription with the provider. Sedatives can worsen symptoms of hypothyroidism, so it is crucial to ensure the safety of the prescribed medication. Administering the sedative without further consultation could lead to adverse effects. Simply advising the nurse to administer the medication without addressing the need for review is not the best course of action. Offering to administer the medication without proper assessment or consulting the provider is not appropriate and could potentially harm the client.

4. A client with lupus erythematosus is prescribed prednisone. What teaching should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food to prevent stomach upset.
• B. Avoid crowded places to reduce the risk of infection.
• C. Take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.
• D. Take extra calcium supplements to prevent osteoporosis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct teaching for a client with lupus erythematosus prescribed prednisone is to avoid crowded places to reduce the risk of infection. Prednisone suppresses the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections. Taking the medication with food may help reduce stomach upset but is not the priority teaching. Taking prednisone in the morning may help reduce insomnia, but infection prevention is more critical. While prednisone can lead to osteoporosis, advising extra calcium supplements is not the most immediate concern when starting the medication.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent complications?

• A. Elevate the affected leg
• B. Encourage early ambulation
• C. Perform frequent range-of-motion exercises
• D. Apply ice packs to the affected leg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the affected leg is crucial in managing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it helps to reduce swelling and improve venous return. This intervention is essential for preventing complications such as pulmonary embolism. Encouraging early ambulation is generally beneficial for preventing DVT but is secondary to leg elevation. Performing range-of-motion exercises can be helpful for maintaining joint mobility but is not the priority intervention in this case. Applying ice packs to the affected leg is not recommended in DVT management as it can cause vasoconstriction and potentially worsen the condition.

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