Nursing Elites

1. A client with adrenal crisis has a temperature of 102°F, heart rate of 138 bpm, and blood pressure of 80/60 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
• B. Infuse intravenous fluid bolus.
• C. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.
• D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with adrenal crisis presenting with a high temperature, tachycardia, and hypotension, the priority action for the nurse to implement first is to infuse an intravenous fluid bolus. This intervention aims to address the hypotension by increasing the circulating volume and improving perfusion. Obtaining an analgesic prescription (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation. Administering an oral antipyretic (Choice C) may help reduce the fever but does not address the primary issue of hypotension. Covering the client with a cooling blanket (Choice D) may help with temperature control but does not address the hemodynamic instability caused by the adrenal crisis.

2. A young male client with an above-knee amputation (AKA) reports that his 'right foot is aching.' What is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage discussion of feelings about the loss of his limb.
• B. Administer a prescription for gabapentin.
• C. Teach the client how to wrap the stump with an elastic bandage.
• D. Offer to assist the client to a quieter location to relax.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because gabapentin is prescribed to treat phantom limb pain, which is common in individuals with amputations. Option A is not the most important intervention at this time since the client is reporting physical pain, not emotional distress. Option C is not appropriate because the client is reporting aching in the foot, not the stump. Option D does not address the underlying issue of phantom limb pain that needs to be managed.

3. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the emergency department with confusion, sweating, and a blood sugar level of 45 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
• B. Provide a carbohydrate snack
• C. Check the client's urine for ketones
• D. Start an insulin drip

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A blood sugar level of 45 mg/dL indicates severe hypoglycemia, which can lead to life-threatening complications if not treated immediately. The priority is to administer IV dextrose to rapidly increase the blood sugar level. Administering 50% dextrose IV push will provide a quick source of glucose to raise the blood sugar. Providing a carbohydrate snack is not the immediate priority in this critical situation. Checking the client's urine for ketones is important in diabetic ketoacidosis, not for hypoglycemia. Starting an insulin drip would further lower the blood sugar and worsen the client's condition.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin injections. What laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin. Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. Monitoring hemoglobin is crucial to assess the effectiveness of the treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Serum potassium levels are often monitored in chronic kidney disease, but it is not the primary parameter to evaluate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. White blood cell count and platelet count are not directly influenced by erythropoietin injections for chronic kidney disease.

5. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?

• A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
• B. To promote oxygenation by improving lung expansion
• C. To encourage use of accessory muscles for breathing
• D. To drain secretions and prevent aspiration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed in a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is essential to drain secretions and prevent aspiration. This position helps facilitate the removal of secretions from the airways, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the primary reason for elevating the head of the bed in ARDS is to assist with secretion drainage and prevent complications associated with aspiration.

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