Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease starts on hemodialysis. During the first dialysis treatment, the client's blood pressure drops from 150/90 to 80/30. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Stop the dialysis treatment
• B. Administer 5% albumin IV
• C. Monitor blood pressure every 45 minutes
• D. Lower the head of the chair and elevate feet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The initial action the nurse should take when a client's blood pressure drops significantly during hemodialysis is to lower the head of the chair and elevate the feet. This position adjustment helps improve blood flow to the brain and vital organs, assisting in stabilizing blood pressure. Stopping the dialysis treatment immediately may not be necessary if the blood pressure can be managed effectively by position changes. Administering 5% albumin IV is not the first-line intervention for hypotension during dialysis. Monitoring blood pressure every 45 minutes is important but not the immediate action needed to address the significant drop in blood pressure observed during the dialysis session.

2. In a patient with diabetes, which of the following is a sign of hypoglycemia?

• A. Polydipsia
• B. Polyuria
• C. Dry skin
• D. Sweating

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sweating is a common sign of hypoglycemia in patients with diabetes. When blood sugar levels drop too low, the body releases stress hormones like adrenaline, leading to symptoms such as sweating, shakiness, and palpitations. Polydipsia (excessive thirst) and polyuria (excessive urination) are more commonly associated with hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels) in diabetes. Dry skin is not a typical symptom of hypoglycemia.

3. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving furosemide (Lasix) and an aminoglycoside antibiotic. The nurse will be most concerned if the patient reports which symptom?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Dysuria
• C. Nausea
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tinnitus. When furosemide and an aminoglycoside antibiotic are used together, there is an increased risk of ototoxicity. Tinnitus, a ringing in the ears, is a common early sign of ototoxicity. Dizziness (choice A) is a common side effect of furosemide but not specifically related to this drug interaction. Dysuria (choice B) is painful urination and is not directly associated with this drug combination. Nausea (choice C) is a common side effect of furosemide but is not specifically indicative of ototoxicity caused by the drug interaction.

4. A middle-aged male client with diabetes continues to eat an abundance of foods that are high in sugar and fat. According to the Health Belief Model, which event is most likely to increase the client's willingness to become compliant with the prescribed diet?

• A. He visits his diabetic brother who just had surgery to amputate an infected foot.
• B. He is provided with the most current information about the dangers of untreated diabetes.
• C. He comments on the community service announcements about preventing complications associated with diabetes.
• D. His wife expresses a sincere willingness to prepare meals that are within his prescribed diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: According to the Health Belief Model, the most effective event to increase compliance with the prescribed diet for a middle-aged male client with diabetes is experiencing a significant consequence related to the disease. In this case, visiting his diabetic brother who just had surgery to amputate an infected foot would serve as a strong 'cue to action,' increasing the client's perceived seriousness of the disease. This event is likely to have a more immediate and impactful effect on the client than other options. Option B provides valuable information but may not have the same personal and emotional impact as witnessing a severe consequence firsthand. Option C involves indirect exposure to prevention messages, which might not be as compelling as a direct experience. Option D, while supportive, does not present a direct consequence of non-compliance like option A does.

5. A client has made an appointment for her annual Papanicolaou test (a.k.a. Pap smear). The nurse who schedules the appointment should tell the client that:

• A. The test cannot be performed while the client is menstruating
• B. Vaginal douching is required at least 24 hours before the test
• C. Spicy foods should not be eaten on the day of the test
• D. The test has absolutely no discomfort associated with it

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A Pap smear cannot be performed with accurate results during menstruation. Menstrual blood may interfere with the test results. Choice B is incorrect as vaginal douching should be avoided for at least 24 hours before the test to prevent altering the cervical cells. Choice C is incorrect as there is no restriction on spicy foods before a Pap smear. Choice D is incorrect as some women may experience mild discomfort during the test, although it is generally well-tolerated.

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