a client with chronic kidney disease starts on hemodialysis during the first dialysis treatment the clients blood pressure drops from 15090 to 8030 wh
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1. A client with chronic kidney disease starts on hemodialysis. During the first dialysis treatment, the client's blood pressure drops from 150/90 to 80/30. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The initial action the nurse should take when a client's blood pressure drops significantly during hemodialysis is to lower the head of the chair and elevate the feet. This position adjustment helps improve blood flow to the brain and vital organs, assisting in stabilizing blood pressure. Stopping the dialysis treatment immediately may not be necessary if the blood pressure can be managed effectively by position changes. Administering 5% albumin IV is not the first-line intervention for hypotension during dialysis. Monitoring blood pressure every 45 minutes is important but not the immediate action needed to address the significant drop in blood pressure observed during the dialysis session.

2. A client presents with a urine specific gravity of 1.018. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.018 falls within the normal range, indicating adequate hydration. Therefore, the appropriate action is to document this finding in the client's chart and continue monitoring. There is no need to evaluate intake and output, as the specific gravity is normal. Obtaining a urine culture and sensitivity or encouraging increased fluid intake is unnecessary in this situation.

3. When monitoring a client who is receiving tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), the nurse should have resuscitation equipment available because reperfusion of the cardiac tissue can result in which of the following?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac arrhythmias. Reperfusion of cardiac tissue following t-PA administration can lead to cardiac arrhythmias, necessitating resuscitation equipment. Hypertension (choice B) is a common side effect of t-PA but is not directly related to reperfusion. Seizures (choice C) and hypothermia (choice D) are not typically associated with reperfusion from t-PA administration.

4. Which of the following is the most appropriate diet for a client during the acute phase of myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the acute phase of myocardial infarction, it is recommended to provide small, easily digested meals for the client. This type of diet is better tolerated as it reduces the workload on the heart, allowing for easier digestion and absorption of nutrients. Choice A, 'Liquids as desired,' may not provide adequate nutrition and may not be well-balanced. Choice C, 'Three regular meals per day,' may be too heavy for the client's weakened condition. Choice D, 'Nothing by mouth,' is not appropriate as the client still requires essential nutrients for recovery.

5. After delegating to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) the task of completing a bladder scan examination for a client, the nurse evaluates the UAP’s performance. Which action by the UAP indicates the nurse must provide additional instructions when delegating this task?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the UAP should select the female icon for women who have not had a hysterectomy to allow the scanner to subtract the volume of the uterus from readings. If a woman has had a hysterectomy, the UAP should choose the male icon. Choice B is incorrect as it is essential for the UAP to explain the procedure to the client to ensure understanding. Choice C is incorrect because applying ultrasound gel to the scanning head and cleaning it after use are appropriate actions. Choice D is incorrect as it is necessary for the UAP to take at least two readings using the aiming icon to position the scanning head accurately for an effective bladder scan examination.

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