Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease starts on hemodialysis. During the first dialysis treatment, the client's blood pressure drops from 150/90 to 80/30. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Stop the dialysis treatment
• B. Administer 5% albumin IV
• C. Monitor blood pressure every 45 minutes
• D. Lower the head of the chair and elevate feet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The initial action the nurse should take when a client's blood pressure drops significantly during hemodialysis is to lower the head of the chair and elevate the feet. This position adjustment helps improve blood flow to the brain and vital organs, assisting in stabilizing blood pressure. Stopping the dialysis treatment immediately may not be necessary if the blood pressure can be managed effectively by position changes. Administering 5% albumin IV is not the first-line intervention for hypotension during dialysis. Monitoring blood pressure every 45 minutes is important but not the immediate action needed to address the significant drop in blood pressure observed during the dialysis session.

2. In the change-of-shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a Stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

• A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
• B. A deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues.
• C. An area of erythema that is painful to touch.
• D. Visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A Stage 2 pressure ulcer typically presents as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed. This appearance is characteristic of a Stage 2 pressure ulcer where there is partial thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and possibly the dermis. Choice B, a deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues, is more indicative of a Stage 3 or Stage 4 pressure ulcer where the ulcer extends into deeper tissue layers. Choice C, an area of erythema that is painful to touch, is more commonly seen in early-stage pressure ulcers such as Stage 1. Choice D, visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing, is characteristic of a more severe stage of pressure ulcer beyond Stage 2.

3. A client reports for a scheduled electroencephalogram (EEG). Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional preparation for the test?

• A. I didn’t shampoo my hair.
• B. I ate breakfast this morning.
• C. I didn’t take my anticonvulsant today.
• D. It was hard not to drink coffee this morning, but I knew that I couldn’t, so I didn’t.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. For an EEG, it is essential that the client's hair is clean, without any products like hairspray or gel, to ensure good electrode contact with the scalp. Choice B is not a concern as having breakfast is allowed before the test. Choice C, not taking an anticonvulsant, might be required for certain types of EEGs to capture accurate brain activity. Choice D, not drinking coffee, is not a specific requirement for an EEG preparation.

4. A middle-aged female client with diabetes mellitus is being treated for the third episode of acute pyelonephritis in the past year. The client asks, 'What can I do to help prevent these infections?' How should the nurse respond?

• A. Test your urine daily for the presence of ketone bodies and proteins.
• B. Use tampons rather than sanitary napkins during your menstrual period.
• C. Drink more water and empty your bladder more frequently during the day.
• D. Keep your hemoglobin A1c under 9% by controlling your blood sugar levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with long-standing diabetes mellitus are at risk for pyelonephritis due to various reasons. Elevated blood glucose levels in diabetes can lead to glucose spilling into the urine, altering the pH and creating a conducive environment for bacterial growth. Neuropathy associated with diabetes can reduce bladder tone and diminish the sensation of bladder fullness, resulting in less frequent voiding and increased risk of stasis and bacterial overgrowth. Increasing fluid intake, particularly water, and voiding regularly can help prevent stasis and microbial overgrowth. Testing urine for ketones and proteins or using tampons instead of sanitary napkins are not effective strategies for preventing pyelonephritis. Keeping the hemoglobin A1c levels below 9% is crucial for managing diabetes, but it alone does not directly prevent pyelonephritis.

5. A patient is admitted to the hospital for treatment of pneumonia after complaining of high fever and shortness of breath. The patient was not able to produce sputum for a culture. The nurse will expect the patient’s provider to order

• A. a broad-spectrum antibiotic.
• B. a narrow-spectrum antibiotic.
• C. multiple antibiotics.
• D. the pneumococcal vaccine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario where the offending organism causing pneumonia is unknown due to the inability to produce sputum for culture, the appropriate choice is a broad-spectrum antibiotic. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are effective against a wide range of bacteria and are commonly used when the specific pathogen is unidentified. Narrow-spectrum antibiotics target specific types of bacteria and are chosen based on culture and sensitivity results. Using multiple antibiotics without a clear indication from culture and sensitivity testing can lead to antibiotic resistance and is not recommended in this situation. Additionally, the pneumococcal vaccine is preventive and does not treat an ongoing infection like pneumonia.

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