Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease starts on hemodialysis. During the first dialysis treatment, the client's blood pressure drops from 150/90 to 80/30. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Stop the dialysis treatment
• B. Administer 5% albumin IV
• C. Monitor blood pressure every 45 minutes
• D. Lower the head of the chair and elevate feet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The initial action the nurse should take when a client's blood pressure drops significantly during hemodialysis is to lower the head of the chair and elevate the feet. This position adjustment helps improve blood flow to the brain and vital organs, assisting in stabilizing blood pressure. Stopping the dialysis treatment immediately may not be necessary if the blood pressure can be managed effectively by position changes. Administering 5% albumin IV is not the first-line intervention for hypotension during dialysis. Monitoring blood pressure every 45 minutes is important but not the immediate action needed to address the significant drop in blood pressure observed during the dialysis session.

2. A client with chronic heart failure is being taught by a nurse about the importance of daily weights. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Weigh yourself at the same time every day.
• B. Use the same scale for weighing each time.
• C. Record your weight in a journal or log.
• D. Report any weight gain of more than 2 to 3 pounds in a day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with chronic heart failure is to report any weight gain of more than 2 to 3 pounds in a day. This weight gain may indicate fluid retention, which is a critical sign of worsening heart failure. Weighing at the same time every day and using the same scale for consistency are good practices, but the crucial action is to promptly report significant weight gain, as stated in option D. Recording the weight in a journal or log can be helpful for tracking trends, but immediate reporting of weight gain is essential for timely intervention in heart failure management. Therefore, option D is the most appropriate instruction for this client.

3. The nurse assumes care for a patient who is currently receiving a dose of intravenous vancomycin (Vancocin) infusing at 20 mg/min. The nurse notes red blotches on the patient’s face, neck, and chest and assesses a blood pressure of 80/55 mm Hg. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Request an order for IV epinephrine to treat anaphylactic shock.
• B. Slow the infusion to 10 mg/min and observe the patient closely.
• C. Stop the infusion and obtain an order for a BUN and serum creatinine.
• D. Suspect Stevens-Johnson syndrome and notify the provider immediately.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When vancomycin is infused too rapidly, “red man” syndrome may occur; the rate should be 10 mg/min to prevent this. This is a toxic reaction, not an allergic one, so epinephrine is not indicated. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is characterized by a rash and fever. Red man syndrome is not related to renal function.

4. The client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is taught to take isophane insulin suspension NPH (Humulin N) at 5 PM each day. The client should be instructed that the greatest risk of hypoglycemia will occur at about what time?

• A. 11 AM, shortly before lunch.
• B. 1 PM, shortly after lunch.
• C. 6 PM, shortly after dinner.
• D. 1 AM, while sleeping.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 1 AM, while sleeping. Isophane insulin suspension NPH (Humulin N) peaks around 6-8 hours after administration, which increases the risk of hypoglycemia during the night. Choice A, 11 AM, shortly before lunch, is incorrect because the peak effect of NPH insulin occurs much later. Choice B, 1 PM, shortly after lunch, is incorrect as it is too early for the peak effect of NPH insulin. Choice C, 6 PM, shortly after dinner, is also incorrect because the peak risk of hypoglycemia with NPH insulin occurs later in the night.

5. The best indicator that the client has learned how to give an insulin self-injection correctly is when the client can:

• A. Perform the procedure safely and correctly.
• B. Critique the nurse's performance of the procedure.
• C. Explain all steps of the procedure correctly.
• D. Correctly answer a post-test about the procedure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best indicator of learning is the ability to perform the procedure safely and correctly, demonstrating skill acquisition. Choice A is correct because the client's ability to perform the insulin self-injection safely and correctly shows practical understanding and application of the skill. Choice B is incorrect because critiquing the nurse's performance does not necessarily demonstrate the client's ability to carry out the procedure themselves. Choice C is incorrect as merely explaining the steps verbally does not confirm the client's practical execution of the task. Choice D is also incorrect as answering a post-test does not directly assess the client's ability to physically perform the insulin self-injection.

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