Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is providing care for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum sodium of 140 mEq/L.
• B. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L.
• C. Serum osmolality of 280 mOsm/kg.
• D. Serum sodium of 130 mEq/L.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum sodium of 130 mEq/L. In SIADH, there is excess release of antidiuretic hormone leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. A serum sodium level of 130 mEq/L indicates severe hyponatremia, which can result in neurological symptoms, such as confusion, seizures, and coma. Therefore, immediate intervention is required to prevent further complications. Choice A, a serum sodium of 140 mEq/L, is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention. Choice B, serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L, is also within the normal range and is not directly related to SIADH. Choice C, serum osmolality of 280 mOsm/kg, is a measure of the concentration of solutes in the blood and may not be the most critical parameter to address in a client with SIADH and severe hyponatremia.

2. While assessing a client receiving a blood transfusion, which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Temperature of 100.4°F (38°C).
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg.
• C. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
• D. Complaints of feeling cold.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A heart rate of 90 beats per minute requires immediate intervention when assessing a client receiving a blood transfusion. This finding can indicate a potential transfusion reaction, such as a hemolytic reaction or fluid overload, which requires prompt evaluation and management to prevent serious complications. While a temperature of 100.4°F (38°C) may indicate a mild fever, it is not typically an immediate concern during a blood transfusion. A blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is within the normal range and does not necessitate immediate intervention. Complaints of feeling cold can be addressed but do not indicate an urgent need for intervention compared to the critical nature of a potential transfusion reaction indicated by an elevated heart rate.

3. The healthcare provider is developing a community outreach program to address childhood obesity. Which intervention should the healthcare provider implement first?

• A. conduct a survey to assess dietary habits and physical activity levels
• B. develop educational materials on healthy eating and exercise
• C. partner with local schools to promote physical activity programs
• D. organize community events that encourage healthy lifestyle choices

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conducting a survey to assess dietary habits and physical activity levels should be the initial step in developing a community outreach program to address childhood obesity. By gathering data through a survey, the healthcare provider can identify specific needs, preferences, and challenges within the community. This information is crucial for designing tailored interventions that are more likely to be effective. Developing educational materials (Choice B) can come after understanding the community's needs through the survey. Partnering with local schools (Choice C) and organizing community events (Choice D) are important strategies but should be planned based on the data obtained from the survey to ensure relevance and impact.

4. The nurse is developing a workshop on cancer prevention for a group of adults at a wellness bar. Which recommendation should the nurse include in the workshop?

• A. Know the four warning signs of cancer
• B. Maintain a healthy weight and exercise regularly
• C. Refrain from alcohol
• D. Obtain at least 6 to 10 hours of sleep per night

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining a healthy weight and exercising regularly are crucial recommendations in cancer prevention. These habits help reduce the risk of developing cancer by promoting overall health and reducing factors associated with cancer development. Knowing the warning signs of cancer (Choice A) is important for early detection but does not directly prevent cancer. While refraining from alcohol (Choice C) is beneficial for some cancers, it is not as universally applicable as maintaining a healthy weight and exercising. Getting adequate sleep (Choice D) is essential for overall health but is not as directly linked to cancer prevention as maintaining a healthy weight and regular exercise.

5. A client with a history of seizures is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• B. Diazepam (Valium)
• C. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam (Ativan) is preferred over Diazepam (Valium) due to its longer duration of action and lower risk of respiratory depression. Phenytoin (Dilantin) and Carbamazepine (Tegretol) are not the first-line agents for the acute treatment of status epilepticus, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

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