Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL is an indicator of effective erythropoietin therapy as it shows an increase in red blood cell production. Reticulocyte count (choice B) reflects the bone marrow's response to anemia but does not directly confirm the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Blood pressure (choice C) and serum ferritin level (choice D) are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy for chronic kidney disease.

2. The client is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K.
• B. I will use a soft toothbrush and an electric razor.
• C. I will keep all appointments for blood tests.
• D. I will avoid participating in contact sports.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because participating in contact sports can increase the risk of injury and bleeding in a client receiving warfarin therapy. Warfarin is a blood thinner, and activities with a higher risk of injury should be avoided to prevent bleeding complications. Choices A, B, and C are all correct statements for a client on warfarin therapy. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K helps maintain consistent anticoagulation levels, using a soft toothbrush and an electric razor reduces the risk of bleeding gums and cuts, and keeping appointments for blood tests ensures proper monitoring of the client's international normalized ratio (INR) levels.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 180/110 mm Hg. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• B. Nifedipine (Procardia)
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide)
• D. Clonidine (Catapres)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario of severe hypertension (180/110 mm Hg), the nurse should prepare to administer Clonidine (Catapres), which is an antihypertensive medication commonly used to rapidly lower blood pressure in acute situations. Atenolol and Nifedipine are also antihypertensive medications, but Clonidine is more appropriate for immediate blood pressure reduction in this critical situation. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic often used for long-term management of hypertension, not for rapid lowering of severely elevated blood pressure.

4. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is admitted with chest pain. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
• B. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
• D. Chest pain radiating to the left arm.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Chest pain radiating to the left arm can be a sign of myocardial infarction (heart attack) and requires immediate intervention. This symptom is known as a classic presentation of a heart attack and warrants urgent medical attention to prevent further cardiac damage. Choices A, B, and C are not directly indicative of an acute cardiac event and may not require immediate intervention in this scenario. While heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate are important vital signs to monitor, they do not specifically indicate the urgency associated with chest pain radiating to the left arm in a patient with a history of coronary artery disease.

5. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the provider to explain the reason for the prescribed medication. What response is best for the provider to provide?

• A. To increase gastric motility.
• B. To decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery.
• C. To reduce secretions.
• D. To prevent nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atropine, an anticholinergic medication, is used preoperatively to prevent bradycardia by increasing the automaticity of the sinoatrial node during surgical anesthesia. Choice A is incorrect because atropine does not affect gastric motility. Choice C is incorrect as atropine is not primarily used to reduce secretions. Choice D is also incorrect because preventing nausea and vomiting is not the primary purpose of administering atropine in this context.

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