the nurse is assessing a 4 year old child who is brought to the clinic for a routine checkup the childs parent reports that the child has been more ir
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HESI RN

HESI Pediatric Practice Exam

1. The nurse is assessing a 4-year-old child who is brought to the clinic for a routine checkup. The child’s parent reports that the child has been more irritable and less active over the past week. The nurse notes a petechial rash on the child’s trunk and extremities. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the child's presentation with irritability, decreased activity, and a petechial rash raises concern for a serious condition like meningitis. Petechial rash can be indicative of meningitis or other critical illnesses. Therefore, the nurse's priority should be to notify the healthcare provider immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and appropriate management. Asking about recent exposure to contagious diseases may be relevant later but is not the most urgent action. Reviewing the child's immunization record and measuring the temperature can provide valuable information but should not take precedence over the need to address the potential serious condition indicated by the petechial rash.

2. A child who is admitted to the hospital with anemia is anxious, fearful, and hyperventilating. The nurse anticipates the child developing which acid-base imbalance?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the child is hyperventilating, which leads to excessive loss of carbon dioxide. This loss of carbon dioxide causes respiratory alkalosis due to a decrease in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood. Therefore, the correct answer is respiratory alkalosis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Metabolic acidosis is characterized by a decrease in pH and bicarbonate levels due to conditions like kidney disease. Respiratory acidosis is caused by retention of carbon dioxide, leading to an increase in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide. Metabolic alkalosis results from a loss of acid or an increase in bicarbonate levels.

3. A 3-year-old with a congenital heart defect has had a steady decrease in heart rate, now at 76 bpm from 110 bpm four hours ago. Which additional finding should be reported immediately to a healthcare provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A significant drop in heart rate and blood pressure should be reported immediately as it may indicate worsening of the congenital heart defect. The blood pressure of 70/40 is dangerously low and requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Oxygen saturation of 94% is within an acceptable range and does not indicate immediate danger. A respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute is slightly elevated but not a critical finding. Urine output of 20 mL/hr is low but may not be the most concerning finding in this scenario compared to the drop in blood pressure.

4. A child with leukemia is admitted for chemotherapy, and the nursing diagnosis 'altered nutrition, less than body requirements related to anorexia, nausea, and vomiting' is identified. Which intervention should the nurse include in this child's plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Allowing the child to eat any food desired and tolerated is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting are common side effects of chemotherapy, which can lead to altered nutrition. Allowing the child to choose foods they desire and can tolerate can help improve their nutritional intake during this challenging time. Encouraging large portions of food at every meal (Choice A) may overwhelm the child and worsen their symptoms. Eating like siblings at home (Choice C) may not align with the child's specific needs during chemotherapy. Restricting food from fast-food restaurants (Choice D) is not necessary as long as the food choices are suitable for the child's condition and preferences.

5. A 13-year-old client with type 1 diabetes presents to the clinic with a blood glucose level of 400 mg/dL. The client reports feeling thirsty and having frequent urination. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with type 1 diabetes presenting with hyperglycemia (blood glucose level of 400 mg/dL) and symptoms of thirst and frequent urination, the priority action for the nurse is to administer insulin as prescribed. Insulin helps lower the blood glucose level and prevents complications like diabetic ketoacidosis. While encouraging hydration is essential, administering insulin is crucial to address the high blood glucose levels. Checking urine for ketones is important in diabetic management but is secondary to administering insulin in this scenario. Reinforcing diet and exercise importance is vital for diabetes management but not the priority in acute hyperglycemia.

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