HESI RN
Community Health HESI 2023 Quizlet
1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a urinary tract infection. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Dysuria.
- B. Hematuria.
- C. Fever.
- D. Urinary frequency.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Fever can indicate a severe infection, such as pyelonephritis, in a client with a urinary tract infection and requires immediate intervention. Hematuria and dysuria are common symptoms of a urinary tract infection but may not always require immediate intervention unless severe. Urinary frequency is also a common symptom and does not indicate the severity of the infection as fever does.
2. The instructor is teaching a prenatal class about the importance of folic acid. Which outcome indicates that the teaching was effective?
- A. participants can list foods high in folic acid
- B. participants plan to take folic acid supplements daily
- C. participants understand the risks of folic acid deficiency
- D. participants demonstrate how to read nutrition labels for folic acid content
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because planning to take folic acid supplements daily is a proactive step towards preventing folic acid deficiency and reducing the risk of neural tube defects in pregnancy. While choice A is important for dietary knowledge, the direct action of taking supplements is more effective. Choice C, understanding the risks, is good but does not ensure action. Choice D, reading nutrition labels, is helpful but doesn't guarantee intake of folic acid.
3. A 6-year-old child is alert but quiet when brought to the emergency center with periorbital ecchymosis and ecchymosis behind the ears. The nurse suspects potential child abuse and continues to assess the child for additional manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. What assessment finding would be consistent with the basilar skull fracture?
- A. Blurred vision.
- B. Shoulder pain.
- C. Abdominal pain.
- D. Rhinorrhea or otorrhea with halo sign.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Rhinorrhea or otorrhea with halo sign. Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) and Battle's sign (ecchymosis behind the ear) are signs of a basilar skull fracture, indicating the need to assess for possible meningeal tears that manifest as a halo sign with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage from the ears or nose. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because blurred vision, shoulder pain, and abdominal pain are not typically associated with a basilar skull fracture.
4. During which home visit performed by a registered nurse or a practical nurse can the home healthcare agency expect Medicare reimbursement for documenting a skilled care service provided?
- A. 13-18 years of age
- B. 11-12 years of age
- C. 18-24 months of age
- D. 4-6 years of age
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4-6 years of age. According to current CDC guidelines, a child receiving the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine at 12 months of age should plan to receive the MMR booster between 4-6 years of age. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the CDC's recommended age range for the MMR vaccine booster. It is crucial for healthcare providers to stay updated with current guidelines to ensure the timely administration of vaccines for optimal protection.
5. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with acute renal failure. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Blood pressure of 180/100 mm Hg.
- B. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours.
- C. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute.
- D. Nausea and vomiting.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours indicates oliguria, which can be a sign of worsening renal function and requires immediate intervention. In acute renal failure, maintaining adequate urine output is crucial to prevent further kidney damage and manage fluid balance. A high blood pressure reading (Option A) is concerning but may not require immediate intervention in this scenario as it could be due to the history of hypertension. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute (Option C) is slightly elevated but may not be the most critical finding at this moment. Nausea and vomiting (Option D) are important to assess but are not as urgent as addressing oliguria in a client with acute renal failure.
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