Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a urinary tract infection. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Dysuria.
• B. Hematuria.
• C. Fever.
• D. Urinary frequency.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fever can indicate a severe infection, such as pyelonephritis, in a client with a urinary tract infection and requires immediate intervention. Hematuria and dysuria are common symptoms of a urinary tract infection but may not always require immediate intervention unless severe. Urinary frequency is also a common symptom and does not indicate the severity of the infection as fever does.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which finding supports this diagnosis?

• A. Positive Homan's sign.
• B. Unilateral leg swelling.
• C. Bilateral calf pain.
• D. Redness and warmth in the affected leg.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Redness and warmth in the affected leg. These are classic signs of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and support the diagnosis. Choice A, Positive Homan's sign, is an outdated and unreliable test for DVT, so it is not the best choice. Choice B, Unilateral leg swelling, can be seen in DVT but is less specific compared to redness and warmth. Choice C, Bilateral calf pain, is not a typical finding in DVT, as the pain in DVT is usually unilateral.

3. The nurse obtains a heart rate of 92 and a blood pressure of 110/76 before administering a scheduled dose of verapamil (Calan) for a client with atrial flutter. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer the dose as prescribed.
• B. Hold the medication.
• C. Call the healthcare provider.
• D. Repeat the vital signs in 30 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to administer the dose as prescribed. Verapamil slows sinoatrial nodal automaticity and delays atrioventricular nodal conduction, which helps in slowing the ventricular rate. The heart rate of 92 and blood pressure of 110/76 are within an acceptable range for administering verapamil in a client with atrial flutter. Holding the medication, calling the healthcare provider, or repeating the vital signs in 30 minutes are not necessary based on the vital signs obtained and the action of verapamil in this scenario.

4. A client with a history of epilepsy is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
• B. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• C. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine such as lorazepam (Ativan) to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam acts quickly and effectively in stopping seizures. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is often used as a second-line agent for status epilepticus, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is not typically indicated for the acute treatment of status epilepticus. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a pain reliever and antipyretic but is not used in the treatment of status epilepticus.

5. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with severe dyspnea. Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL.
• B. Serum potassium of 3.5 mEq/L.
• C. Serum creatinine of 1.0 mg/dL.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 20 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL is within the normal range. However, in a client with heart failure and severe dyspnea, fluid retention is a significant concern. An elevated serum creatinine level may indicate impaired kidney function, which can worsen fluid overload. Therefore, immediate intervention is required to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and not indicative of immediate intervention in this scenario.

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