Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a urinary tract infection. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Dysuria.
• B. Hematuria.
• C. Fever.
• D. Urinary frequency.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fever can indicate a severe infection, such as pyelonephritis, in a client with a urinary tract infection and requires immediate intervention. Hematuria and dysuria are common symptoms of a urinary tract infection but may not always require immediate intervention unless severe. Urinary frequency is also a common symptom and does not indicate the severity of the infection as fever does.

2. The client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving discharge instructions. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will weigh myself daily and report a weight gain of more than 2 pounds in 24 hours.
• B. I will take my diuretic medication in the morning.
• C. I will call my healthcare provider if I experience increased shortness of breath.
• D. I will drink at least 3 liters of fluid each day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Drinking at least 3 liters of fluid each day may be contraindicated for a client with CHF due to the risk of fluid overload. This can exacerbate heart failure symptoms and lead to complications. Options A, B, and C are all appropriate statements that demonstrate understanding of managing CHF and seeking appropriate medical attention when needed.

3. A female client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being treated at home and is currently receiving oxygen at 2 liters via nasal cannula. The spouse, who is the caregiver, reports that the client requires assistance when ambulating short distances, including going to the bathroom. Which suggestion should the health care nurse provide to the caregiver?

• A. disconnect oxygen when ambulating to the bathroom
• B. administer a breathing treatment prior to ambulation
• C. suggest obtaining a bedside commode for toileting
• D. ask for additional assistance to reduce the risk of falls

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a client with COPD requiring assistance for short-distance ambulation, suggesting a bedside commode for toileting is the most appropriate intervention. This recommendation helps reduce the need for the client to walk long distances, thereby minimizing the risk of exertion and potential falls. Disconnecting oxygen during ambulation (Choice A) is not safe for a client with COPD, as oxygen therapy should be continuous. Administering a breathing treatment before ambulation (Choice B) may not directly address the client's need for assistance with toileting. Asking for additional assistance (Choice D) can be beneficial but providing a bedside commode specifically addresses the current issue of ambulating short distances for toileting.

4. During a prenatal class for expectant mothers, what topic should be included to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby?

• A. importance of taking prenatal vitamins
• B. how to handle common discomforts of pregnancy
• C. preparing for labor and delivery
• D. breastfeeding techniques

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the importance of taking prenatal vitamins. Prenatal vitamins are crucial for the health of both the mother and the baby as they provide essential nutrients required for fetal development. While handling common discomforts of pregnancy (choice B) is important for maternal well-being, it does not directly impact the health of the baby. Preparing for labor and delivery (choice C) focuses more on the delivery process rather than the overall health of the mother and baby during pregnancy. Breastfeeding techniques (choice D) are relevant postpartum, not during the prenatal period, and do not directly impact the health of the baby during pregnancy.

5. During which home visit performed by a registered nurse or a practical nurse can the home healthcare agency expect Medicare reimbursement for documenting a skilled care service provided?

• A. 13-18 years of age
• B. 11-12 years of age
• C. 18-24 months of age
• D. 4-6 years of age

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4-6 years of age. According to current CDC guidelines, a child receiving the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine at 12 months of age should plan to receive the MMR booster between 4-6 years of age. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the CDC's recommended age range for the MMR vaccine booster. It is crucial for healthcare providers to stay updated with current guidelines to ensure the timely administration of vaccines for optimal protection.

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