a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition tpn which of these interventions should the nurse perform to reduce the risk of infection
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Practice Exam

1. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to reduce the risk of infection?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the TPN tubing and solution every 24 hours to reduce the risk of infection. This practice helps prevent microbial growth and contamination in the TPN solution. Monitoring the infusion rate closely (choice B) is important for preventing metabolic complications but does not directly reduce the risk of infection. Keeping the head of the bed elevated (choice C) is beneficial for preventing aspiration in feeding tube placement but is unrelated to reducing infection risk in TPN. Ensuring the solution is at room temperature before infusing (choice D) is essential for patient comfort and preventing metabolic complications but does not specifically address infection risk reduction.

2. During an assessment on a client in congestive heart failure, what is most likely to be revealed upon auscultation of the heart?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: S3 ventricular gallop. An S3 sound is a common finding in congestive heart failure due to fluid overload in the heart. It is associated with decreased ventricular compliance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. An apical click is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. A systolic murmur may be heard in conditions like mitral regurgitation but is not specific to congestive heart failure. A split S2 is associated with conditions like pulmonary hypertension, not congestive heart failure.

3. The nurse is about to assess a 6-month-old child with nonorganic failure-to-thrive (NOFTT). Upon entering the room, the nurse would expect the baby to be

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A baby with nonorganic failure-to-thrive often appears pale, thin, and uninterested in their surroundings. Choice A is incorrect as 'irritable and colicky with no attempts to pull to standing' is more indicative of other conditions like colic. Choice B is incorrect as a baby with nonorganic failure-to-thrive is unlikely to be alert, laughing, and playing, as they would typically present with signs of failure to thrive. Choice C is incorrect as dusky skin color and poor skin turgor are not typical findings in a baby with nonorganic failure-to-thrive.

4. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with the parent of a toddler about appropriate snacks. Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sliced bananas. Sliced bananas are a healthy and safe snack option for toddlers as they provide essential nutrients and are easy to chew. Bananas are a good source of potassium and fiber. Choice B, raw celery, may pose a choking hazard for toddlers due to its stringy texture. Choice C, peanut butter, can also be a choking hazard and may not be suitable for all toddlers due to potential allergies. Choice D, marshmallows, are high in sugar and low in nutrients, making them an unhealthy choice for toddler snacks.

5. Why is it important for the healthcare provider to monitor blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because monitoring for orthostatic hypotension is crucial when clients are receiving antipsychotic drugs since it is a common side effect. Orthostatic hypotension can lead to symptoms like dizziness and falls, making it essential to monitor blood pressure regularly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because most antipsychotic drugs do not typically cause elevated blood pressure, monitoring blood pressure is not directly related to the amount of sodium in the diet, and blood pressure monitoring is not primarily used to determine the need for anti-parkinsonian drugs in clients receiving antipsychotic medications.

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