Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is performing a physical assessment of a male client who has chronic renal failure. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Client reports difficulty breathing
• B. Client reports shortness of breath when lying flat
• C. Client reports swelling in the feet and ankles
• D. Client reports a metallic taste in the mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with chronic renal failure, difficulty breathing is the most critical finding to report. This symptom may indicate fluid overload or pulmonary edema, which can be life-threatening. Shortness of breath when lying flat (orthopnea) is also concerning but less urgent than difficulty breathing. Swelling in the feet and ankles (edema) is a common finding in renal failure but may not be as immediately critical as difficulty breathing. A metallic taste in the mouth is associated with uremia, a common complication of chronic renal failure, but it is not as urgent as respiratory distress.

2. A primigravida at term comes to the prenatal clinic and tells the nurse that she is having contractions every 5 min. The nurse monitors the client for one hour, using an external fetal monitor, and determines that the client’s contractions are 7 to 15 minutes apart, lasting 20 to 30 seconds, with mild intensity by palpation. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Tell the client to go directly to the hospital for admission to labor and delivery for active labor
• B. Send the client home and instruct her to call the clinic when her contractions occur 5 minutes apart for one hour
• C. Tell the client to check into the hospital within the next hour for evaluation of possible urinary tract infection
• D. Advise the client to rest and hydrate, then return if contractions become more regular

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client should be instructed to call when contractions are 5 minutes apart for an hour to ensure she is in active labor before going to the hospital.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving treatment for dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is responding to the treatment?

• A. Dry mucous membranes
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Decreased skin turgor
• D. Elevated heart rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased urine output is a positive sign indicating that the client is responding to the treatment for dehydration. It suggests that the client's kidneys are functioning better, helping to eliminate excess fluid and waste products from the body. Dry mucous membranes (Choice A) are a sign of dehydration, not improvement. Decreased skin turgor (Choice C) and elevated heart rate (Choice D) are also symptoms of dehydration and do not indicate a positive response to treatment.

4. A client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is admitted with fluid volume overload. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours
• B. Presence of a cough
• C. Edema in the lower extremities
• D. Shortness of breath

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D - Shortness of breath.' In a client with congestive heart failure experiencing fluid volume overload, shortness of breath is a critical finding that indicates possible pulmonary congestion and worsening heart failure. This symptom requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are common findings in clients with CHF but are not as urgent as shortness of breath. Weight gain may indicate fluid retention, cough can be due to pulmonary congestion, and edema in lower extremities is a common manifestation of CHF, but none of these findings are as concerning as shortness of breath in this scenario.

5. A client with an electrical burn on the forearm asks the nurse why there is no feeling of pain from the burn. During the dressing change, the nurse determines that the burn is dry, waxy, and white. What information should the nurse provide this client?

• A. The depth of tissue destruction is minor
• B. Pain is interrupted due to nerve compression
• C. The full thickness burn has destroyed the nerves
• D. Second-degree burns are not usually painful

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The full thickness burn has destroyed the nerves.' In full thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, the nerve endings are destroyed, leading to a lack of pain sensation at the site of the burn. The description of the burn as dry, waxy, and white indicates a full thickness burn. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not explain the absence of pain in full thickness burns. Choice A is incorrect as a full-thickness burn involves significant tissue destruction. Choice B is incorrect because nerve compression would not explain the lack of pain in this context. Choice D is incorrect because second-degree burns, unlike full-thickness burns, are painful due to nerve endings being intact.

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