a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula the client reports difficulty br
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exit Exam

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client reports difficulty breathing. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client with COPD reports difficulty breathing while receiving oxygen is to check the client's oxygen saturation level. This helps in determining the adequacy of oxygenation and identifying the cause of the breathing difficulty. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (Choice A) may not be appropriate without knowing the current oxygen saturation level. Instructing the client to breathe deeply and cough (Choice B) may not address the immediate need for oxygen assessment. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position (Choice D) can help with breathing but should come after ensuring proper oxygenation.

2. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care for a client who is receiving acyclovir (Zovirax) IV for the treatment of herpes zoster (shingles)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum creatinine levels. Acyclovir can potentially impact kidney function, making it essential to monitor serum creatinine levels to assess renal function. Option A, initiating cardiac telemetry monitoring, is not directly related to acyclovir administration for herpes zoster. Option B, maintaining continuous pulse oximetry, is more relevant in assessing respiratory status rather than monitoring for acyclovir-related side effects. Option C, performing capillary glucose measurements, is not directly associated with acyclovir therapy for herpes zoster.

3. A primigravida at term comes to the prenatal clinic and tells the nurse that she is having contractions every 5 min. The nurse monitors the client for one hour, using an external fetal monitor, and determines that the client’s contractions are 7 to 15 minutes apart, lasting 20 to 30 seconds, with mild intensity by palpation. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client should be instructed to call when contractions are 5 minutes apart for an hour to ensure she is in active labor before going to the hospital.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a client. Which action should the nurse take to reduce the client's risk of injury?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to aspirate for blood return before injecting. This action helps ensure that the needle is not in a blood vessel, reducing the risk of injury. Using a 1-inch needle (Choice A) is a standard length for intramuscular injections but does not directly reduce the risk of injury. Selecting a large muscle for the injection (Choice B) is important for proper medication absorption but does not directly reduce the risk of injury. Massaging the injection site (Choice D) can help with medication absorption but does not reduce the risk of injury.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving treatment for dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is responding to the treatment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased urine output is a positive sign indicating that the client is responding to the treatment for dehydration. It suggests that the client's kidneys are functioning better, helping to eliminate excess fluid and waste products from the body. Dry mucous membranes (Choice A) are a sign of dehydration, not improvement. Decreased skin turgor (Choice C) and elevated heart rate (Choice D) are also symptoms of dehydration and do not indicate a positive response to treatment.

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