Nursing Elites

1. A 3-year-old boy is brought to the emergency center with dysphagia, drooling, a fever of 102°F, and stridor. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Place the child in a mist tent
• B. Obtain a sputum culture
• C. Prepare for an emergent tracheostomy
• D. Examine the child's oropharynx and report the findings to the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 3-year-old boy presenting with dysphagia, drooling, fever, and stridor, the priority intervention should be to place the child in a mist tent. This intervention helps alleviate respiratory distress, providing immediate relief. Options B, C, and D are not as urgent as ensuring the child's airway is managed effectively. Obtaining a sputum culture, preparing for a tracheostomy, and examining the oropharynx can be done after stabilizing the child's respiratory status.

2. The nurse is planning care for a 2-year-old child who is scheduled for an infusion of immune globulin for treatment of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for this child?

• A. Risk for infection
• B. Risk for injury
• C. Altered oral mucous membranes
• D. Risk for fluid volume deficit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for infection.' When caring for a child with ITP scheduled for immune globulin infusion, the highest priority is to prevent infection. This is crucial due to the risk of bleeding associated with ITP and the immunosuppression that can be caused by the condition and its treatment. The other options, such as 'Risk for injury,' 'Altered oral mucous membranes,' and 'Risk for fluid volume deficit,' are not as high a priority as preventing infection in this particular situation.

3. A client receiving amlodipine (Norvasc), a calcium channel blocker, develops 1+ pitting edema around the ankles. It is most important for the nurse to obtain what additional client data?

• A. Bladder distention
• B. Serum albumin level
• C. Abdominal girth
• D. Breath sounds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D. Breath sounds.' When a client receiving amlodipine develops edema, it is crucial to assess for potential heart failure, a side effect of the medication. Checking breath sounds helps in identifying any signs of pulmonary edema, a severe complication of heart failure. Choices A, B, and C are less relevant in this context. Bladder distention could be associated with urinary issues, serum albumin level with malnutrition or liver disease, and abdominal girth with gastrointestinal problems, none of which directly relate to the potential heart failure induced by amlodipine.

4. A nurse is assessing the learning needs of a client who is diagnosed with Addison's disease. Which statement indicates that the client needs further teaching?

• A. I should take my medications daily to replace necessary hormones
• B. I need to eat a diet high in protein and carbohydrates
• C. I should avoid drinking fluids with caffeine
• D. I should notify my healthcare provider if I start feeling dizzy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A diet high in protein and carbohydrates is not specifically required for Addison's disease. The focus should be on maintaining a balanced diet that is rich in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and adequate protein sources. Choice A is correct as adherence to medication therapy is crucial in managing Addison's disease. Choice C is correct as caffeine can exacerbate symptoms of Addison's disease. Choice D is correct as dizziness can be a sign of adrenal crisis in Addison's disease, and prompt notification of healthcare providers is essential.

5. When preparing an educational program for adolescents about the risks of multiple sexual partners, which information is most important to include?

• A. Condoms provide reliable protection against sexually transmitted infections.
• B. Having multiple sexual partners increases the risk of contracting sexually transmitted infections.
• C. The use of oral contraceptives can reduce the risk of sexually transmitted infections.
• D. Having multiple sexual partners increases the risk of developing cancer.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because having multiple sexual partners significantly increases the risk of contracting sexually transmitted infections (STIs). This information is crucial for adolescents to understand the potential consequences of engaging in risky sexual behaviors. Choice A is incorrect because while condoms are important for protection, they are not 100% effective. Choice C is incorrect as oral contraceptives do not protect against STIs. Choice D is incorrect as the immediate concern for adolescents in this context is the risk of STIs rather than cancer.

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