HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. The nurse is monitoring a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis. The nurse should report which of the following findings immediately?
- A. Clear dialysate outflow.
- B. Weight gain of 2 lbs (0.9 kg) since the last treatment.
- C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
- D. Pulse rate of 72 bpm.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weight gain of 2 lbs (0.9 kg) since the last treatment is concerning in a client undergoing hemodialysis with chronic renal failure as it may indicate fluid overload. This finding requires immediate reporting and intervention to prevent complications such as fluid retention, pulmonary edema, or exacerbation of heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are not findings that require immediate attention in this context. Clear dialysate outflow is a normal finding during hemodialysis, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg is within a normal range for many clients, and a pulse rate of 72 bpm is also within the expected range for most individuals.
2. When preparing a client who has had a total laryngectomy for discharge, what instruction is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Recommend that the client carry suction equipment at all times.
- B. Instruct the client to have writing materials with them at all times.
- C. Tell the client to carry a medic alert card stating that they are a total neck breather.
- D. Tell the client not to travel alone.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most crucial instruction for a client who has had a total laryngectomy is to carry a medic alert card stating that they are a total neck breather. This is important because if they experience a cardiac arrest, mouth-to-neck breathing may be required. Choice A about carrying suction equipment is not the most critical as the client may not always need it. Choice B is not as essential as having a medic alert card. Choice D is not directly related to the client's safety due to their laryngectomy.
3. A client with diabetes is taking insulin lispro (Humalog) injections. The nurse should advise the client to eat:
- A. Within 10 to 15 minutes after the injection.
- B. 1 hour after the injection.
- C. At any time, because timing of meals with lispro injections is unnecessary.
- D. 2 hours before the injection.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to eat within 10 to 15 minutes after the injection. Insulin lispro, also known as Humalog, is a rapid-acting insulin that starts working very quickly. Eating shortly after the injection helps match the food intake with the insulin action, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia. Choice B is incorrect because waiting 1 hour after the injection may lead to a mismatch between insulin activity and food intake. Choice C is incorrect as timing meals with lispro injections is essential to optimize glycemic control. Choice D is incorrect as eating 2 hours before the injection is not in alignment with the rapid action of insulin lispro and may lead to fluctuations in blood sugar levels.
4. A client in the postanesthesia care unit has an as-needed prescription for ondansetron (Zofran). Which of the following occurrences would prompt the nurse to administer this medication to the client?
- A. Paralytic ileus
- B. Incisional pain
- C. Urine retention
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nausea and vomiting. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to manage postoperative nausea and vomiting, as well as nausea and vomiting related to chemotherapy. It is not indicated for treating paralytic ileus, incisional pain, or urine retention. Paralytic ileus is a condition of the gastrointestinal tract characterized by the paralysis of intestinal muscles, which would not be treated with ondansetron. Incisional pain is typically managed with analgesics, not antiemetics. Urine retention is a urinary issue that does not involve nausea and vomiting, making ondansetron an inappropriate choice for this condition.
5. When assessing the lower extremities of a client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD), the nurse notes bilateral ankle edema. The edema is related to:
- A. Competent venous valves.
- B. Decreased blood volume.
- C. Increase in muscular activity.
- D. Increased venous pressure.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Increased venous pressure.' In peripheral vascular disease (PVD), impaired blood flow leads to increased venous pressure in the lower extremities, causing fluid to leak out of the blood vessels and accumulate as edema. Choice A, 'Competent venous valves,' is incorrect because in PVD, the venous valves may be incompetent, contributing to venous pooling and edema. Choice B, 'Decreased blood volume,' is incorrect as PVD is associated with impaired blood flow rather than reduced blood volume. Choice C, 'Increase in muscular activity,' is incorrect as it does not directly relate to the development of edema in PVD.
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