HESI RN
HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. The nurse is caring for a newly admitted patient who will receive digoxin to treat a cardiac dysrhythmia. The patient takes hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) and reports regular use of over-the-counter laxatives. Before administering the first dose of digoxin, the nurse will review the patient’s electrolytes with careful attention to the levels of which electrolytes?
- A. Calcium and magnesium
- B. Sodium and calcium
- C. Potassium and chloride
- D. Potassium and magnesium
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Before administering digoxin, the nurse must review the patient's electrolyte levels, focusing on potassium and magnesium. Hypomagnesemia, similar to hypokalemia, can enhance the action of digitalis and lead to digitalis toxicity. Laxatives and diuretics, like hydrochlorothiazide, can deplete both potassium and magnesium. Therefore, monitoring these electrolytes is crucial to prevent potential adverse effects associated with digoxin therapy. Choice A (Calcium and magnesium) is incorrect because calcium levels are not specifically mentioned as crucial for digoxin therapy. Choice B (Sodium and calcium) is incorrect as sodium is not typically monitored in relation to digoxin therapy. Choice C (Potassium and chloride) is incorrect because although potassium is vital, chloride is not typically associated with digoxin therapy.
2. A client with nephrotic syndrome is being assessed by a nurse. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Proteinuria
- B. Hypoalbuminemia
- C. Lipiduria
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by glomerular damage, leading to proteinuria (excessive protein in the urine), hypoalbuminemia (low levels of albumin in the blood), and lipiduria (lipids in the urine). These manifestations are key indicators of nephrotic syndrome. Edema, often severe, is also common due to decreased plasma oncotic pressure from hypoalbuminemia. The correct answer is 'All of the above' because all three manifestations are associated with nephrotic syndrome. Dehydration is not a typical finding in nephrotic syndrome as it is more commonly associated with fluid retention and edema. Dysuria is a symptom of cystitis, not nephrotic syndrome. CVA tenderness is more indicative of inflammatory changes in the kidney rather than nephrotic syndrome.
3. What is the primary purpose of administering anticoagulants to a patient with atrial fibrillation?
- A. To reduce blood pressure.
- B. To prevent clot formation.
- C. To prevent arrhythmias.
- D. To reduce inflammation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of administering anticoagulants to a patient with atrial fibrillation is to prevent clot formation. Patients with atrial fibrillation are at an increased risk of forming blood clots in the heart, which can lead to stroke if they travel to the brain. Anticoagulants help to reduce this risk by inhibiting the clotting process. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect because anticoagulants do not primarily aim to reduce blood pressure, prevent arrhythmias, or reduce inflammation in patients with atrial fibrillation.
4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving hemodialysis for the first time. Which of the following findings should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
- B. Nausea and vomiting.
- C. Fatigue.
- D. Headache.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are critical symptoms that should be reported immediately when a client is receiving hemodialysis for the first time. These symptoms could indicate a severe complication, such as hypotension, infection, electrolyte imbalance, or other adverse reactions to the procedure. It is essential to address these symptoms promptly to prevent further complications or harm to the client. Choices A, C, and D are not immediate concerns during the first hemodialysis session and can be addressed appropriately after addressing the urgent issue of nausea and vomiting.
5. Which of the following lipid abnormalities is a risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis and peripheral vascular disease?
- A. Low concentration of triglycerides.
- B. High levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol.
- C. High levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol.
- D. Low levels of LDL cholesterol.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: High levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol. High levels of LDL cholesterol contribute to the development of atherosclerosis and peripheral vascular disease by being deposited in the blood vessel walls, leading to the formation of plaques that can obstruct blood flow. Choice A is incorrect as a low concentration of triglycerides is not typically associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis or PVD. Choice B is incorrect as high levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol are actually considered protective against atherosclerosis as it helps remove cholesterol from arteries. Choice D is incorrect as low levels of LDL cholesterol are not typically considered a risk factor for atherosclerosis or PVD.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access