HESI RN
HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. The nurse is caring for a newly admitted patient who will receive digoxin to treat a cardiac dysrhythmia. The patient takes hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) and reports regular use of over-the-counter laxatives. Before administering the first dose of digoxin, the nurse will review the patient’s electrolytes with careful attention to the levels of which electrolytes?
- A. Calcium and magnesium
- B. Sodium and calcium
- C. Potassium and chloride
- D. Potassium and magnesium
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Before administering digoxin, the nurse must review the patient's electrolyte levels, focusing on potassium and magnesium. Hypomagnesemia, similar to hypokalemia, can enhance the action of digitalis and lead to digitalis toxicity. Laxatives and diuretics, like hydrochlorothiazide, can deplete both potassium and magnesium. Therefore, monitoring these electrolytes is crucial to prevent potential adverse effects associated with digoxin therapy. Choice A (Calcium and magnesium) is incorrect because calcium levels are not specifically mentioned as crucial for digoxin therapy. Choice B (Sodium and calcium) is incorrect as sodium is not typically monitored in relation to digoxin therapy. Choice C (Potassium and chloride) is incorrect because although potassium is vital, chloride is not typically associated with digoxin therapy.
2. The nurse observes an increased number of blood clots in the drainage tubing of a client with continuous bladder irrigation following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). What is the best initial nursing action?
- A. Provide additional oral fluid intake
- B. Measure the client's intake and output
- C. Increase the flow of the bladder irrigation
- D. Administer a PRN dose of an antispasmodic agent
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best initial nursing action when observing an increased number of blood clots in the drainage tubing of a client with continuous bladder irrigation post-TURP is to increase the flow of the bladder irrigation. This action helps prevent blood clots from obstructing the catheter, ensuring effective drainage and promoting client comfort. Providing additional oral fluid intake (Choice A) is important for overall hydration but may not directly address the issue of blood clots in the drainage tubing. Measuring the client's intake and output (Choice B) is a routine nursing assessment that may not directly address the immediate concern of blood clots obstructing the catheter. Administering a PRN dose of an antispasmodic agent (Choice D) is not the best initial action as it does not directly address the issue of blood clots in the drainage tubing.
3. The nurse is assessing an older adult with a pacemaker who leads a sedentary lifestyle. The client reports being unable to perform activities that require physical exertion. The nurse should further assess the client for which of the following?
- A. Left ventricular atrophy.
- B. Irregular heartbeats.
- C. Peripheral vascular occlusion.
- D. Pacemaker function.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Left ventricular atrophy. Older adults who lead sedentary lifestyles are at risk of developing left ventricular atrophy, which can lead to decreased cardiac output during physical exertion. This condition can contribute to the client's inability to perform activities requiring physical exertion. Choice B, irregular heartbeats, may be a consideration due to the presence of a pacemaker, but the client's reported inability to perform physically exerting activities is more indicative of a structural issue like left ventricular atrophy rather than a rhythm-related problem. Peripheral vascular occlusion (Choice C) is less likely to be the cause of the client's symptoms compared to the cardiac-related issue of left ventricular atrophy. While assessing pacemaker function (Choice D) is important, the client's symptoms are more suggestive of a cardiac structural issue rather than a malfunction of the pacemaker.
4. Oxygen via nasal cannula has been prescribed for a client with emphysema. The nurse checks the physician’s orders to ensure that the prescribed flow is not greater than:
- A. 1 L/min
- B. 3 L/min
- C. 4 L/min
- D. 6 L/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, 3 L/min. Clients with emphysema typically receive oxygen at a flow rate of 1 to 2 L/min, with a maximum of 3 L/min. Higher flow rates can lead to oxygen toxicity in these clients, so it's crucial to adhere to the prescribed limits. Choice A (1 L/min) is too low and may not provide adequate oxygenation for the client. Choices C (4 L/min) and D (6 L/min) exceed the recommended flow rates for clients with emphysema and can increase the risk of oxygen toxicity.
5. What is an expected outcome when a client is receiving an IV administration of furosemide?
- A. Increased blood pressure.
- B. Increased urine output.
- C. Decreased pain.
- D. Decreased premature ventricular contractions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased urine output. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the ascending loop of Henle in the kidneys, leading to increased urine production. This diuretic effect helps to reduce fluid volume in the body, making it an expected outcome when a client is receiving furosemide. Choice A, increased blood pressure, is incorrect because furosemide typically causes a decrease in blood pressure due to its diuretic effect. Choice C, decreased pain, and choice D, decreased premature ventricular contractions, are unrelated to the pharmacological action of furosemide.
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