Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is monitoring a client receiving IV potassium chloride. Which assessment finding should prompt the healthcare professional to immediately stop the infusion?

• A. The client reports pain at the IV site
• B. The client’s heart rate is irregular
• C. The client has swelling at the IV site
• D. The client’s blood pressure is elevated

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An irregular heart rate is a critical sign of hyperkalemia, a serious condition that can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Stopping the infusion promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. The healthcare professional should inform the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and management. Choice A is incorrect because pain at the IV site is common and may not necessitate stopping the infusion. Choice C is incorrect as swelling at the IV site may indicate a local reaction but is not a reason to stop the infusion. Choice D is incorrect as an elevated blood pressure alone is not a direct indication to stop the infusion of IV potassium chloride.

2. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?

• A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
• B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
• C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
• D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.

3. An older adult male client is admitted to the medical unit following a fall at home. When undressing him, the nurse notes that he is wearing an adult diaper, and skin breakdown is obvious over his sacral area. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Establish a toileting schedule to decrease episodes of incontinence
• B. Complete a functional assessment of the client’s self-care abilities
• C. Apply a barrier ointment to intact areas that may be exposed to moisture
• D. Determine the size and depth of skin breakdown over the sacral area

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The initial step the nurse should take when faced with skin breakdown over the sacral area of the client is to determine the size and depth of the affected area. Assessing and documenting these aspects are crucial before initiating any treatment. This evaluation will guide the nurse in developing an appropriate care plan to address the skin breakdown effectively. Options A, B, and C are not the first steps to take in this situation. While establishing a toileting schedule and completing a functional assessment are important, assessing the size and depth of the skin breakdown is the priority to initiate proper treatment. Applying a barrier ointment without assessing the extent of the breakdown may not address the underlying issue effectively.

4. During a sterile procedure at a client's bedside, a healthcare provider contaminates a sterile glove and the sterile field. What is the best action for the nurse to implement?

• A. Report the incident to the supervisor for aseptic technique violation.
• B. Allow the completion of the procedure.
• C. Inquire about the contamination of the glove and sterile field.
• D. Identify the breach in surgical asepsis and provide a new set of sterile supplies.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario where a healthcare provider contaminates a sterile glove and the sterile field during a procedure, it is crucial to identify any breach in surgical asepsis. Any potential contamination should be considered compromised, and the nurse must act promptly to maintain sterility by providing a fresh set of sterile supplies for the procedure to continue safely.

5. During the suctioning of a tracheostomy tube, if the catheter appears to attach to the tracheal walls and creates a pulling sensation, what is the best action for the nurse to take?

• A. Release the suction by opening the vent.
• B. Continue suctioning to remove obstruction.
• C. Increase the pressure.
• D. Suction deeper.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When the catheter of the suctioning device attaches to the tracheal walls, causing a pulling sensation, the nurse should release the suction by opening the vent. This action will alleviate the pulling sensation and prevent trauma to the delicate tracheal walls. Continuing suctioning or applying more pressure can lead to tissue damage and should be avoided. Suctioning deeper can increase the risk of injuring the patient's airway.

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