Nursing Elites

1. A community health nurse is applying for a federal grant to support a smoking cessation educational program. In which order should the nurse prioritize these nursing activities? Arrange in order top to bottom.

• A. Determine the target aggregate that will be served by the program
• B. Consider pros and cons of different methods of data gathering
• C. Select and train the data collection personnel
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D' - All of the above. The nurse should first determine the target aggregate that will be served by the program to understand the specific population in need. Subsequently, they should consider the pros and cons of different methods of data gathering to ensure the most appropriate data collection strategies are employed. Finally, selecting and training the data collection personnel is essential for the successful implementation of the program. These steps provide a logical progression from identifying the target group to analyzing the collected data. Choices A, B, and C are all crucial steps that must be taken in sequence to effectively develop and implement the smoking cessation educational program.

2. A public health nurse is developing a campaign to promote breast cancer screening. Which population should be the primary target of this campaign?

• A. women aged 20-30
• B. women aged 30-40
• C. women aged 40-50
• D. women aged 50-60

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is women aged 40-50. This age group is at an increased risk for breast cancer and should be the primary target for screening campaigns. Women in this age range are more likely to benefit from regular screening as early detection can lead to better outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because women aged 20-30 are generally not recommended for routine screening due to their lower risk, women aged 30-40 have a moderate risk but are not the primary target group, and women aged 50-60 should still be screened but targeting the 40-50 age group is more crucial for early detection and intervention.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube following thoracic surgery. Which intervention should the healthcare provider include in the plan of care?

• A. Clamp the chest tube for 30 minutes every 2 hours.
• B. Milk the chest tube to ensure patency.
• C. Keep the drainage system at the level of the chest.
• D. Ensure that the chest tube is not clamped or kinked.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ensuring that the chest tube is not clamped or kinked is essential to maintain proper drainage and prevent complications. Clamping the chest tube can lead to a buildup of pressure in the pleural space, causing potential harm to the client. Milking the chest tube is not recommended as it can cause damage to the delicate tubing. Keeping the drainage system at the level of the chest ensures proper drainage by gravity, preventing backflow of fluids, but ensuring the tube is not clamped or kinked takes precedence in this scenario.

4. A female adult walks into a local community health clinic and tells the nurse that she is homeless and cannot seem to find help. Which statement indicates to the nurse that a client is feeling separated from society and helpless?

• A. "I'm feeling really isolated from everyone and scared."
• B. "I feel like I cannot get enough food to live any longer."
• C. "I know that I will always be poor so what's the use of trying?"
• D. "People like me are never respected, no matter how well we do."

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because the statement reflects a sense of isolation and helplessness, indicating a profound emotional and social disconnect. The client expresses feeling separated from others and scared, highlighting a deep emotional distress. Choices B, C, and D touch on different issues such as food insecurity, hopelessness about poverty, and lack of respect, but they do not specifically address the feelings of isolation and helplessness mentioned in the client's statement.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing.
• C. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute.
• D. Barrel-shaped chest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute is an abnormal finding and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress, requiring immediate intervention. This rapid respiratory rate can signify inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Oxygen saturation of 88% is low but not as immediately concerning as a high respiratory rate, which indicates the body is compensating for respiratory distress. The use of accessory muscles for breathing and a barrel-shaped chest are typical findings in clients with COPD but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as they are more chronic in nature and may be seen in stable COPD patients.

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