Nursing Elites

1. A client who gave birth to a healthy 8-pound infant 3 hours ago is admitted to the postpartum unit. Which nursing plan is best in assisting this mother to bond with her newborn infant?

• A. Encourage the mother to provide total care for her infant.
• B. Provide privacy so the mother can develop a relationship with the infant.
• C. Encourage the father to provide most of the infant's care during hospitalization.
• D. Meet the mother's physical needs and demonstrate warmth toward the infant.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Meeting the mother's physical needs and demonstrating warmth toward the infant is essential in creating a supportive environment that fosters bonding between the mother and the newborn. By ensuring the mother's comfort and well-being, the nurse can help promote a positive interaction between the mother and her infant, leading to a stronger emotional connection and bonding.

2. A postpartum client who is Rh-negative refuses to receive RhoGAM after the delivery of an infant who is Rh-positive. Which information should the nurse provide this client?

• A. RhoGAM prevents maternal antibody formation for future Rh-positive babies.
• B. RhoGAM is not necessary unless all of her pregnancies are Rh-positive.
• C. The Rh-positive factor from the fetus threatens her blood cells.
• D. The mother should receive RhoGAM when the baby is Rh-negative.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. RhoGAM is administered to Rh-negative individuals after exposure to Rh-positive blood to prevent the development of antibodies that could harm future Rh-positive babies during subsequent pregnancies. By refusing RhoGAM after the delivery of an Rh-positive infant, the mother risks developing these antibodies, which could lead to hemolytic disease in future pregnancies with Rh-positive babies. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to explain to the client that receiving RhoGAM prevents the formation of maternal antibodies against Rh-positive blood, safeguarding the health of future babies. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is incorrect because RhoGAM is necessary after exposure to Rh-positive blood, regardless of the Rh status of future pregnancies. Choice C is incorrect as it does not accurately convey the purpose of RhoGAM administration. Choice D is incorrect because RhoGAM is specifically given after exposure to Rh-positive blood, not when the baby is Rh-negative.

3. A 16-year-old gravida 1, para 0 client has just been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of eclampsia. She is not presently convulsing. Which intervention should the nurse plan to include in this client’s nursing care plan?

• A. Keep airway equipment at the bedside.
• B. Allow liberal family visitation.
• C. Monitor blood pressure, pulse, and respirations q4h.
• D. Assess temperature q1h.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with eclampsia, the priority intervention is to keep airway equipment at the bedside to manage potential convulsions effectively. This proactive measure is essential to ensure rapid response and intervention in case of convulsions, which can occur in clients with eclampsia.

4. A father watching the admission of his newborn to the nursery notices that eye ointment is placed in the infant's eyes. He asks what is the purpose of the ointment. The nurse would be correct in stating that the purpose of the ointment is:

• A. Prevent eye infection.
• B. Dilate the pupil so the red reflex can be visualized.
• C. Clear the infant's vision.
• D. Prevent herpes infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prevent eye infection. Eye ointment, usually containing erythromycin, is applied to prevent neonatal conjunctivitis, which can be caused by bacteria present in the birth canal. It is not used to dilate the pupil, clear the infant's vision, or prevent herpes infection.

5. The nurse is caring for a 2-day old neonate who has not passed meconium and has a swollen abdomen. The healthcare provider reviews the flat plate X-ray of the abdomen and makes a tentative diagnosis of Hirschsprung's disease. Which pathophysiological process is consistent with this neonate's clinical picture?

• A. The congenital absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells to large intestine produces no peristalsis.
• B. Pyloric obstruction causes reflux and projectile hematemesis.
• C. Partial imperforated anal opening limits passage of stools.
• D. Peristalsis moving against the intestinal obstruction causing hyperactivity of the bowel.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hirschsprung's disease is caused by the absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the large intestine, leading to a lack of peristalsis and obstruction.

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