HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. The nurse is evaluating the laboratory reports of a client with hypothyroidism. The nurse would expect which of the following laboratory values?
- A. Increased TSH
- B. Increased thyroxine (T4)
- C. Decreased TSH
- D. Decreased T3
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased TSH. In hypothyroidism, the thyroid gland is underactive, leading to low levels of thyroid hormones. As a compensatory mechanism, the pituitary gland releases more thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) to try to stimulate the thyroid gland to produce more hormones. Therefore, increased TSH levels are expected in hypothyroidism. Choice B is incorrect because in hypothyroidism, thyroxine (T4) levels are usually decreased, not increased. Choice C is incorrect as hypothyroidism is characterized by increased TSH levels, not decreased. Choice D is also incorrect because in hypothyroidism, T3 levels may be decreased, but TSH is a more sensitive indicator for diagnosis.
2. An older adult client with heart failure (HF) and hypertension (HTN) is receiving atenolol, furosemide, and enalapril. Which assessments are essential to evaluate the effectiveness of the medications?
- A. Bowel sounds and daily weight.
- B. Daily weight and blood pressure.
- C. Heart sounds and range of motion.
- D. Monitor for evidence of hypokalemia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring daily weight and blood pressure is crucial to assess the effectiveness of diuretics (furosemide) and antihypertensives (atenolol, enalapril) in managing heart failure and hypertension. Changes in weight indicate fluid status, while blood pressure readings reflect the control of hypertension. Assessing bowel sounds and range of motion are important but not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of these specific medications in this scenario. Monitoring for hypokalemia is important due to furosemide's potential side effect, but it is not the primary assessment to evaluate medication effectiveness.
3. A client receiving radiation therapy for breast cancer reports dry, peeling skin at the treatment site. What action should the nurse recommend?
- A. Apply lotion to the treatment area.
- B. Use mild soap and water to cleanse the area.
- C. Cover the area with a sterile dressing.
- D. Allow the skin to air dry after washing.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client with dry, peeling skin at a radiation therapy treatment site is to use mild soap and water to cleanse the area. This approach helps in preventing skin irritation and reduces the risk of infection. Applying lotion (Choice A) may further irritate the skin due to the chemicals present in the lotion. Covering the area with a sterile dressing (Choice C) is not necessary unless there is an open wound that needs protection. Allowing the skin to air dry after washing (Choice D) may lead to further dryness and peeling.
4. The home care nurse visits a client who has cancer. The client reports having a good appetite but experiencing nausea when smelling food cooking. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Encourage family members to cook meals outdoors and bring the cooked food inside
- B. Provide anti-nausea medication prior to meals
- C. Suggest drinking cold water with meals to reduce nausea
- D. Recommend smaller, frequent meals
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In some cases, the smell of food cooking can trigger nausea in cancer patients. Cooking food outside reduces the intensity of odors that could trigger nausea, helping the client maintain adequate nutrition. Providing anti-nausea medication (Choice B) may not address the root cause of the nausea triggered by the smell of cooking food. Suggesting cold water (Choice C) or smaller, frequent meals (Choice D) may not directly address the issue of cooking odors triggering nausea, which is specific to this client's situation.
5. A client who is bedridden after a stroke is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which nursing intervention is most important in preventing this complication?
- A. Apply lotion to the skin every 4 hours.
- B. Reposition the client every 2 hours.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees.
- D. Massage the skin at least twice a day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Repositioning the client every 2 hours is crucial in preventing pressure ulcers in bedridden clients. This intervention helps in relieving pressure on specific areas of the body, promoting circulation, and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Applying lotion every 4 hours (Choice A) may not address the root cause of pressure ulcers. Elevating the head of the bed (Choice C) is beneficial for some conditions but not specifically targeted at preventing pressure ulcers. Massaging the skin at least twice a day (Choice D) can actually increase the risk of skin breakdown in individuals at risk for pressure ulcers by causing friction and shearing forces on the skin.
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