Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is documenting the medical history of a young adult who was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. The client smokes 2 packs of cigarettes a day, and his father died of a heart attack at the age of 45. Which annual screening is most important for the nurse to include?

• A. peripheral neuropathy
• B. renal insufficiency
• C. retinopathy
• D. hyperlipidemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important annual screening for the nurse to include is hyperlipidemia. Given the client's smoking history, family history of premature heart disease, and the increased risk of cardiovascular complications associated with diabetes, screening for hyperlipidemia is crucial. This screening is essential in assessing the client's risk of developing cardiovascular disease, which is a significant concern in this case. Peripheral neuropathy (choice A) is a common long-term complication of diabetes but may not be the most immediate concern in this scenario. Renal insufficiency (choice B) is also a complication of diabetes, but given the client's high cardiovascular risk, hyperlipidemia screening takes priority. Retinopathy (choice C) is an important complication of diabetes affecting the eyes, but in this case, focusing on cardiovascular risk assessment through hyperlipidemia screening is more critical.

2. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is admitted with chest pain. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
• B. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
• D. Chest pain radiating to the left arm.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Chest pain radiating to the left arm can be a sign of myocardial infarction (heart attack) and requires immediate intervention. This symptom is known as a classic presentation of a heart attack and warrants urgent medical attention to prevent further cardiac damage. Choices A, B, and C are not directly indicative of an acute cardiac event and may not require immediate intervention in this scenario. While heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate are important vital signs to monitor, they do not specifically indicate the urgency associated with chest pain radiating to the left arm in a patient with a history of coronary artery disease.

3. A client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Continue the heparin infusion as prescribed.
• B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate.
• C. Increase the heparin infusion rate.
• D. Stop the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. In this case, the heparin infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further anticoagulation and an increased bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to discuss alternative anticoagulation strategies or interventions. Continuing heparin therapy without action could lead to severe bleeding complications. Decreasing or increasing the heparin infusion rate would exacerbate the risk of bleeding, making options A, B, and C incorrect.

4. The nurse is developing a workshop on cancer prevention for a group of adults at a wellness bar. Which recommendation should the nurse include in the workshop?

• A. Know the four warning signs of cancer
• B. Maintain a healthy weight and exercise regularly
• C. Refrain from alcohol
• D. Obtain at least 6 to 10 hours of sleep per night

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining a healthy weight and exercising regularly are crucial recommendations in cancer prevention. These habits help reduce the risk of developing cancer by promoting overall health and reducing factors associated with cancer development. Knowing the warning signs of cancer (Choice A) is important for early detection but does not directly prevent cancer. While refraining from alcohol (Choice C) is beneficial for some cancers, it is not as universally applicable as maintaining a healthy weight and exercising. Getting adequate sleep (Choice D) is essential for overall health but is not as directly linked to cancer prevention as maintaining a healthy weight and regular exercise.

5. A client with a history of seizures is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• B. Diazepam (Valium)
• C. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam (Ativan) is preferred over Diazepam (Valium) due to its longer duration of action and lower risk of respiratory depression. Phenytoin (Dilantin) and Carbamazepine (Tegretol) are not the first-line agents for the acute treatment of status epilepticus, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

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