Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is documenting the medical history of a young adult who was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. The client smokes 2 packs of cigarettes a day, and his father died of a heart attack at the age of 45. Which annual screening is most important for the nurse to include?

• A. peripheral neuropathy
• B. renal insufficiency
• C. retinopathy
• D. hyperlipidemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important annual screening for the nurse to include is hyperlipidemia. Given the client's smoking history, family history of premature heart disease, and the increased risk of cardiovascular complications associated with diabetes, screening for hyperlipidemia is crucial. This screening is essential in assessing the client's risk of developing cardiovascular disease, which is a significant concern in this case. Peripheral neuropathy (choice A) is a common long-term complication of diabetes but may not be the most immediate concern in this scenario. Renal insufficiency (choice B) is also a complication of diabetes, but given the client's high cardiovascular risk, hyperlipidemia screening takes priority. Retinopathy (choice C) is an important complication of diabetes affecting the eyes, but in this case, focusing on cardiovascular risk assessment through hyperlipidemia screening is more critical.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose of 250 mg/dL.
• B. Serum potassium of 3.5 mEq/L.
• C. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L.
• D. Arterial blood pH of 7.30.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An arterial blood pH of 7.30 indicates the client is in acidosis, which is a life-threatening condition in DKA. Immediate intervention is required to correct the acidosis and prevent further complications such as organ failure or coma. Blood glucose of 250 mg/dL is elevated but not an immediate threat to life in comparison to acidosis. Serum potassium of 3.5 mEq/L and serum sodium of 135 mEq/L are within normal ranges and do not warrant immediate intervention in the context of DKA.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 200/120 mm Hg. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Metoprolol (Lopressor).
• B. Furosemide (Lasix).
• C. Lisinopril (Zestril).
• D. Nitroprusside (Nipride).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Nitroprusside (Nipride). In this scenario of severe hypertension (200/120 mm Hg), a hypertensive emergency is present, requiring rapid reduction of blood pressure. Nitroprusside is a vasodilator that acts quickly to lower blood pressure in such emergencies. Options A, B, and C are incorrect: A) Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that lowers blood pressure but is not indicated for hypertensive emergencies requiring rapid reduction. B) Furosemide is a diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not rapidly lower blood pressure. C) Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used for long-term management of hypertension, not for immediate reduction in hypertensive emergencies.

4. The nurse is assessing a client who complains of weight loss, racing heart rate, and difficulty sleeping. The nurse determines the client has moist skin with fine hair, prominent eyes, lid retraction, and a staring expression. These findings are consistent with which disorder?

• A. Graves' disease.
• B. Cushing's syndrome.
• C. Addison's disease.
• D. Hypothyroidism.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Graves' disease. The symptoms described in the client are classic manifestations of hyperthyroidism, which is commonly caused by Graves' disease, an autoimmune condition affecting the thyroid. Weight loss, racing heart rate, difficulty sleeping, moist skin with fine hair, prominent eyes, lid retraction, and a staring expression are all indicative of hyperthyroidism. Choice B, Cushing's syndrome, is characterized by weight gain, hypertension, and a rounded face due to excess cortisol. Choice C, Addison's disease, presents with symptoms such as weight loss, fatigue, and hyperpigmentation due to adrenal insufficiency. Choice D, hypothyroidism, typically features symptoms opposite to those described in the client, such as weight gain, bradycardia, and dry skin.

5. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL is an indicator of effective erythropoietin therapy as it shows an increase in red blood cell production. Reticulocyte count (choice B) reflects the bone marrow's response to anemia but does not directly confirm the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Blood pressure (choice C) and serum ferritin level (choice D) are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy for chronic kidney disease.

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