Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is developing a program to educate parents on the importance of immunizations. Which topic should be prioritized?

• A. the benefits of immunizations
• B. the potential side effects of vaccines
• C. the immunization schedule
• D. ways to comfort children during vaccinations

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prioritizing the benefits of immunizations is crucial in helping parents comprehend the significance of vaccines in safeguarding their children against preventable diseases. Understanding the positive impact of immunizations can alleviate concerns and misconceptions that parents may have, ultimately encouraging them to make informed decisions regarding their children's health. Discussing potential side effects (choice B) is important but should come after highlighting the benefits to avoid instilling unnecessary fear. While the immunization schedule (choice C) is essential information, it may be overwhelming if presented as the initial focus. Comforting children during vaccinations (choice D) is valuable but secondary to ensuring parents understand the benefits of immunizations.

2. Which client has the highest risk for developing community-acquired pneumonia?

• A. a 40-year-old first-grade teacher who works with underprivileged children
• B. a 75-year-old retired secretary with exercise-induced wheezing
• C. a 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes
• D. a 35-year-old aerobics instructor who skips meals and eats only vegetables

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, a 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes. This client has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia due to multiple factors such as homelessness, substance abuse, and smoking. Homelessness can lead to poor living conditions and limited access to healthcare, increasing susceptibility to infections. Alcoholism and smoking weaken the immune system, making individuals more vulnerable to respiratory infections like pneumonia. Choices A, B, and D do not present the same level of risk factors for pneumonia compared to choice C.

3. When the receptionist for the answering service offers to take a message, which nursing action is best for the nurse to take if a client is exhibiting an extrapyramidal reaction to psychotropic medications?

• A. Leave a detailed message about the client's condition.
• B. Tell the receptionist to have the healthcare provider return the phone call.
• C. Call another healthcare provider.
• D. Document the attempt to call the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best nursing action is to request a return call from the healthcare provider. When a client is experiencing an extrapyramidal reaction to psychotropic medications, it is crucial to prioritize the client's confidentiality and ensure the information is conveyed to the healthcare provider directly. Leaving a detailed message with a receptionist may compromise the confidentiality of the client's condition. Calling another healthcare provider may delay necessary intervention and continuity of care. Documenting the attempt to call is important for the nurse's records but does not address the immediate need to inform the healthcare provider about the client's condition.

4. A client with a head injury is admitted to the hospital. Which finding indicates a need for immediate intervention?

• A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15.
• B. Pupils are equal and reactive to light.
• C. Client is drowsy but arousable.
• D. Client does not remember the events leading to the injury.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with a head injury, being drowsy but still arousable can be a sign of increased intracranial pressure, which necessitates immediate intervention. This presentation may indicate a deterioration in neurological status, requiring prompt assessment and management to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are not indicative of an immediate need for intervention in this scenario. A Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15 indicates the highest level of consciousness; pupils being equal and reactive to light suggest intact cranial nerve function, and memory loss about the injury event is common in head injuries and does not necessarily warrant immediate intervention.

5. The nurse obtains a heart rate of 92 and a blood pressure of 110/76 before administering a scheduled dose of verapamil (Calan) for a client with atrial flutter. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer the dose as prescribed.
• B. Hold the medication.
• C. Call the healthcare provider.
• D. Repeat the vital signs in 30 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to administer the dose as prescribed. Verapamil slows sinoatrial nodal automaticity and delays atrioventricular nodal conduction, which helps in slowing the ventricular rate. The heart rate of 92 and blood pressure of 110/76 are within an acceptable range for administering verapamil in a client with atrial flutter. Holding the medication, calling the healthcare provider, or repeating the vital signs in 30 minutes are not necessary based on the vital signs obtained and the action of verapamil in this scenario.

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