the nurse is developing a health education program for adolescents on the dangers of smoking which strategy is most likely to be effective
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HESI RN

Community Health HESI 2023 Quizlet

1. The healthcare professional is developing a health education program for adolescents on the dangers of smoking. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Inviting former smokers to share their experiences is the most effective strategy because personal stories can have a powerful impact on adolescents and motivate them to avoid smoking. This approach makes the consequences of smoking more relatable and real, potentially influencing behavior change. Showing graphic images may be too harsh and could lead to desensitization or avoidance of the issue. Providing statistical data may not resonate as strongly with adolescents as personal stories. Distributing pamphlets, while informative, may not have the same emotional impact as hearing real-life experiences.

2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the therapy is effective?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 2.5 indicates that warfarin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with atrial fibrillation. A lower INR (such as 1.0) would suggest subtherapeutic levels, risking blood clots. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are not specific to monitoring warfarin therapy.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a new arteriovenous fistula in the left arm for hemodialysis. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Warmth and redness in the client's arm suggest infection or thrombosis of the arteriovenous fistula, which requires immediate intervention to prevent complications. A thrill (A) is a normal finding in a functional arteriovenous fistula, indicating good blood flow. A bruit (C) is also a normal finding on auscultation of a functioning arteriovenous fistula, indicating proper blood flow. The absence of a bruit (D) may indicate a non-functioning fistula, which would need further evaluation but does not require immediate intervention as warmth and redness do.

4. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with pulmonary edema. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A productive cough with pink, frothy sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary edema, indicating fluid in the lungs. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory compromise and worsening of the condition. Peripheral edema (Choice A) is a manifestation of heart failure but is not as urgent as addressing pulmonary edema. Oxygen saturation of 88% (Choice B) is low and requires attention, but the pink, frothy sputum signifies acute respiratory distress. Jugular vein distention (Choice C) can be seen in heart failure, but the immediate concern in this scenario is addressing the pulmonary edema to ensure adequate gas exchange and oxygenation.

5. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is admitted with chest pain. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Chest pain radiating to the left arm can be a sign of myocardial infarction (heart attack) and requires immediate intervention. This symptom is known as a classic presentation of a heart attack and warrants urgent medical attention to prevent further cardiac damage. Choices A, B, and C are not directly indicative of an acute cardiac event and may not require immediate intervention in this scenario. While heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate are important vital signs to monitor, they do not specifically indicate the urgency associated with chest pain radiating to the left arm in a patient with a history of coronary artery disease.

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