the nurse is developing a health education program for adolescents on the dangers of smoking which strategy is most likely to be effective
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Community Health HESI 2023 Quizlet

1. The healthcare professional is developing a health education program for adolescents on the dangers of smoking. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Inviting former smokers to share their experiences is the most effective strategy because personal stories can have a powerful impact on adolescents and motivate them to avoid smoking. This approach makes the consequences of smoking more relatable and real, potentially influencing behavior change. Showing graphic images may be too harsh and could lead to desensitization or avoidance of the issue. Providing statistical data may not resonate as strongly with adolescents as personal stories. Distributing pamphlets, while informative, may not have the same emotional impact as hearing real-life experiences.

2. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with pulmonary edema. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A productive cough with pink, frothy sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary edema, indicating fluid in the lungs. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory compromise and worsening of the condition. Peripheral edema (Choice A) is a manifestation of heart failure but is not as urgent as addressing pulmonary edema. Oxygen saturation of 88% (Choice B) is low and requires attention, but the pink, frothy sputum signifies acute respiratory distress. Jugular vein distention (Choice C) can be seen in heart failure, but the immediate concern in this scenario is addressing the pulmonary edema to ensure adequate gas exchange and oxygenation.

3. A client with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with acute pancreatitis and a history of alcohol abuse, a temperature of 101°F (38.3°C) can indicate infection, which is a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. Elevated amylase and lipase levels are common in acute pancreatitis but do not directly indicate the need for urgent intervention. A calcium level of 8.5 mg/dL is within the normal range and does not require immediate action in this context.

4. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with severe epigastric pain. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease presenting with severe epigastric pain, the finding that requires immediate intervention is rebound tenderness. Rebound tenderness can indicate peritonitis, a serious condition that necessitates immediate medical attention. Nausea and vomiting, hematemesis, and melena are also concerning symptoms in a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease, but they do not signify the urgency of intervention as rebound tenderness does.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing the laboratory results for a client who is admitted with renal failure and osteodystrophy. Which findings are consistent with this client's clinical picture?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In renal failure and osteodystrophy, there is an alteration in serum electrolyte balance. The correct answer is serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L and total calcium of 6 mg/dL. Renal failure is associated with hyperkalemia (elevated serum potassium) and hypocalcemia (low total calcium levels). Hyperphosphatemia is also commonly seen in renal failure. Choice A is incorrect as it describes normal levels of serum potassium and total calcium. Choice B is unrelated to the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as it does not reflect the typical electrolyte imbalances seen in renal failure and osteodystrophy.

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