HESI RN
Community Health HESI 2023 Quizlet
1. The healthcare professional is developing a health education program for adolescents on the dangers of smoking. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?
- A. showing graphic images of the effects of smoking
- B. inviting former smokers to share their experiences
- C. providing statistical data on smoking-related illnesses
- D. distributing pamphlets on smoking cessation resources
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Inviting former smokers to share their experiences is the most effective strategy because personal stories can have a powerful impact on adolescents and motivate them to avoid smoking. This approach makes the consequences of smoking more relatable and real, potentially influencing behavior change. Showing graphic images may be too harsh and could lead to desensitization or avoidance of the issue. Providing statistical data may not resonate as strongly with adolescents as personal stories. Distributing pamphlets, while informative, may not have the same emotional impact as hearing real-life experiences.
2. A nurse is planning a community health fair to promote cancer awareness. Which activity should be included to best engage participants?
- A. free cancer screenings
- B. lectures on cancer prevention
- C. distribution of educational materials
- D. testimonials from cancer survivors
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Offering free cancer screenings should be included in the community health fair to best engage participants. This activity provides immediate, valuable information about participants' cancer risk, making it highly engaging and actionable. While lectures on cancer prevention and distribution of educational materials are informative, they may not offer the same level of immediate engagement and impact as free screenings. Testimonials from cancer survivors, although inspiring, do not provide participants with direct information about their own cancer risk, making them less effective in engaging participants actively.
3. A female client is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Facial weakness and difficulty speaking.
- B. Decreased deep tendon reflexes in the legs.
- C. Inability to move the eyes.
- D. Respiratory distress and cyanosis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In Guillain-Barre syndrome, decreased deep tendon reflexes are a critical finding that may indicate impending respiratory failure. This is due to the involvement of the peripheral nervous system affecting the muscles, including those involved in breathing. Reporting decreased deep tendon reflexes promptly is essential to prevent respiratory compromise. Facial weakness, difficulty speaking, and inability to move the eyes are common manifestations of Guillain-Barre syndrome but are not as immediately concerning as respiratory distress and impending respiratory failure.
4. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 200/120 mm Hg. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
- A. Metoprolol (Lopressor).
- B. Furosemide (Lasix).
- C. Lisinopril (Zestril).
- D. Nitroprusside (Nipride).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Nitroprusside (Nipride). In this scenario of severe hypertension (200/120 mm Hg), a hypertensive emergency is present, requiring rapid reduction of blood pressure. Nitroprusside is a vasodilator that acts quickly to lower blood pressure in such emergencies. Options A, B, and C are incorrect: A) Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that lowers blood pressure but is not indicated for hypertensive emergencies requiring rapid reduction. B) Furosemide is a diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not rapidly lower blood pressure. C) Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used for long-term management of hypertension, not for immediate reduction in hypertensive emergencies.
5. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will monitor my blood pressure regularly.
- B. I will report any signs of infection to my healthcare provider.
- C. I will avoid using salt substitutes.
- D. I will increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increasing potassium intake can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in clients taking ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Hyperkalemia is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors and can be exacerbated by consuming potassium-rich foods. Monitoring blood pressure regularly (A) is important when taking antihypertensive medications. Reporting signs of infection (B) is crucial as ACE inhibitors can lower the immune response. Avoiding salt substitutes (C) is necessary because they may contain potassium chloride, leading to increased potassium levels, which can be harmful in combination with ACE inhibitors.
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