Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is developing a health education program for adolescents on the dangers of smoking. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?

• A. showing graphic images of the effects of smoking
• B. inviting former smokers to share their experiences
• C. providing statistical data on smoking-related illnesses
• D. distributing pamphlets on smoking cessation resources

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Inviting former smokers to share their experiences is the most effective strategy because personal stories can have a powerful impact on adolescents and motivate them to avoid smoking. This approach makes the consequences of smoking more relatable and real, potentially influencing behavior change. Showing graphic images may be too harsh and could lead to desensitization or avoidance of the issue. Providing statistical data may not resonate as strongly with adolescents as personal stories. Distributing pamphlets, while informative, may not have the same emotional impact as hearing real-life experiences.

2. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute
• D. Productive cough with green sputum

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with COPD admitted with pneumonia, a productive cough with green sputum indicates a potential bacterial infection. Green sputum is commonly associated with bacterial pneumonia, which requires immediate intervention with appropriate antibiotics. Monitoring oxygen saturation, respiratory rate, and heart rate are essential in COPD patients, but the presence of green sputum suggests an urgent need for targeted treatment to address the underlying infection. Oxygen saturation of 88% is concerning but may not directly indicate the need for immediate intervention in the absence of other critical symptoms. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute and a heart rate of 90 beats per minute are within normal limits and may not be indicative of an acute issue requiring immediate intervention in this context.

3. A client who is taking clonidine (Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness. Which additional assessment should the nurse make?

• A. How long has the client been taking the medication?
• B. Assess the client's dietary habits.
• C. Check for signs of infection.
• D. Evaluate the client's sleep pattern.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When a client reports drowsiness while taking clonidine, the nurse should assess how long the client has been taking the medication. Drowsiness is a common side effect that can occur in the early weeks of treatment with clonidine. By understanding the duration of medication use, the nurse can determine if the drowsiness is a temporary effect that may decrease over time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because assessing the client's dietary habits, checking for signs of infection, or evaluating the client's sleep pattern would not directly address the drowsiness associated with clonidine use.

4. A client who has active tuberculosis (TB) is admitted to the medical unit. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Wear a gown and gloves.
• B. Have the client wear a mask.
• C. Perform hand hygiene.
• D. Assign the client to a negative air-flow room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to assign the client to a negative air-flow room (Choice D). Active tuberculosis requires implementation of airborne precautions, including isolating the client in a negative pressure air-flow room to prevent the spread of the infection to others. Choice A (Wear a gown and gloves) is important for standard precautions but does not address the specific airborne precautions needed for tuberculosis. Choice B (Have the client wear a mask) may help reduce the spread of respiratory droplets but does not provide adequate protection for healthcare workers or other patients. Choice C (Perform hand hygiene) is essential for infection control but is not the most critical action when dealing with an airborne infection like tuberculosis.

5. A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled for hemodialysis in the morning. Which pre-dialysis medication should the nurse withhold until after the dialysis treatment is completed?

• A. Calcium carbonate (Os-Cal)
• B. Furosemide (Lasix)
• C. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
• D. Multivitamins

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Furosemide (Lasix). Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes fluid loss, and giving it before hemodialysis can lead to excessive fluid loss during the treatment, potentially causing hypovolemia. Withholding furosemide until after the dialysis session helps in preventing this complication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because calcium carbonate, spironolactone, and multivitamins are not typically contraindicated before hemodialysis in clients with chronic renal failure.

Similar Questions