Nursing Elites

1. The nurse obtains a pulse rate of 89 beats/min for an infant before administering digoxin (Lanoxin). What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication.
• B. Hold the medication and contact the healthcare provider.
• C. Double the dose.
• D. Increase fluid intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the medication and contact the healthcare provider. Bradycardia (pulse rate less than 100 beats/minute) is an early sign of digoxin toxicity. It is essential to withhold digoxin and notify the healthcare provider to prevent potential adverse effects. Administering the medication (Choice A) could exacerbate the toxicity. Doubling the dose (Choice C) is inappropriate and dangerous. Increasing fluid intake (Choice D) is not indicated in this situation and does not address the issue of digoxin toxicity.

2. The healthcare provider is conducting a health assessment for a family living in a high-crime area. Which intervention should the healthcare provider prioritize to ensure the family's safety?

• A. providing information on local crime statistics
• B. teaching the family self-defense techniques
• C. helping the family develop a safety plan
• D. encouraging the family to move to a safer neighborhood

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Developing a safety plan is the most appropriate intervention as it helps the family prepare for potential emergencies and enhances their overall sense of security. Providing information on local crime statistics may raise awareness but does not directly address safety planning. Teaching self-defense techniques may have limited effectiveness in a high-crime area where the family may face multiple threats. Encouraging the family to move to a safer neighborhood is not always feasible due to various reasons such as financial constraints or social ties to the current community.

3. A client with hypertension is being seen in a community clinic. The nurse notes that the client has not been taking their prescribed medication regularly. What is the most appropriate initial intervention?

• A. Educate the client on the importance of medication adherence
• B. Explore the reasons for non-adherence with the client
• C. Refer the client to a hypertension specialist
• D. Adjust the client's medication regimen

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate initial intervention when a client is not adhering to prescribed medication is to explore the reasons for non-adherence with the client. Understanding the client's perspective can help identify barriers to adherence, such as side effects, cost, forgetfulness, or misunderstanding of the treatment. By addressing these reasons, the nurse can work collaboratively with the client to develop strategies to improve medication compliance. Educating the client on the importance of adherence (Choice A) may be necessary but should come after exploring the reasons for non-adherence. Referring the client to a hypertension specialist (Choice C) or adjusting the medication regimen (Choice D) should be considered after addressing the underlying reasons for non-adherence.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube to continuous suction. Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypercalcemia.
• B. Hypokalemia.
• C. Hyponatremia.
• D. Hypomagnesemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. When a client has a nasogastric tube to continuous suction, potassium loss through gastric fluids can lead to hypokalemia. Hypercalcemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with continuous suction. Hyponatremia (Choice C) involves sodium imbalance and is not directly related to nasogastric suction. Hypomagnesemia (Choice D) is not the primary concern in this situation, as potassium loss is more significant with gastric suction.

5. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with pulmonary edema. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Peripheral edema.
• B. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• C. Jugular vein distention.
• D. Productive cough with pink, frothy sputum.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A productive cough with pink, frothy sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary edema, indicating fluid in the lungs. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory compromise and worsening of the condition. Peripheral edema (Choice A) is a manifestation of heart failure but is not as urgent as addressing pulmonary edema. Oxygen saturation of 88% (Choice B) is low and requires attention, but the pink, frothy sputum signifies acute respiratory distress. Jugular vein distention (Choice C) can be seen in heart failure, but the immediate concern in this scenario is addressing the pulmonary edema to ensure adequate gas exchange and oxygenation.

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