Nursing Elites

1. The nurse obtains a pulse rate of 89 beats/min for an infant before administering digoxin (Lanoxin). What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication.
• B. Hold the medication and contact the healthcare provider.
• C. Double the dose.
• D. Increase fluid intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the medication and contact the healthcare provider. Bradycardia (pulse rate less than 100 beats/minute) is an early sign of digoxin toxicity. It is essential to withhold digoxin and notify the healthcare provider to prevent potential adverse effects. Administering the medication (Choice A) could exacerbate the toxicity. Doubling the dose (Choice C) is inappropriate and dangerous. Increasing fluid intake (Choice D) is not indicated in this situation and does not address the issue of digoxin toxicity.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. Which finding indicates that the treatment is effective?

• A. Urine output is decreased.
• B. Thirst is decreased.
• C. Weight loss is observed.
• D. Urine specific gravity is within the normal range.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In diabetes insipidus, the body loses excessive amounts of water, leading to diluted urine with low specific gravity. Therefore, when the urine specific gravity is within the normal range, it indicates that the kidneys are properly concentrating urine, which is a sign of effective treatment for diabetes insipidus. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in diabetes insipidus, there is polyuria (excessive urination), persistent thirst due to fluid loss, and potential weight loss due to fluid imbalance, so these findings would not indicate effective treatment.

3. A 6-year-old child is alert but quiet when brought to the emergency center with periorbital ecchymosis and ecchymosis behind the ears. The nurse suspects potential child abuse and continues to assess the child for additional manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. What assessment finding would be consistent with the basilar skull fracture?

• A. Blurred vision.
• B. Shoulder pain.
• C. Abdominal pain.
• D. Rhinorrhea or otorrhea with halo sign.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Rhinorrhea or otorrhea with halo sign. Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) and Battle's sign (ecchymosis behind the ear) are signs of a basilar skull fracture, indicating the need to assess for possible meningeal tears that manifest as a halo sign with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage from the ears or nose. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because blurred vision, shoulder pain, and abdominal pain are not typically associated with a basilar skull fracture.

4. The client with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught about insulin administration by the nurse. Which statement indicates that the client needs further teaching?

• A. I will inject my insulin into my abdomen for the fastest absorption.
• B. I will rotate injection sites to prevent lipodystrophy.
• C. I will store my insulin in the refrigerator at all times.
• D. I will rotate injection sites to prevent lipodystrophy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Insulin should not be stored in the refrigerator at all times; it should be kept at room temperature when in use to avoid irritation at the injection site. Storing insulin in the refrigerator can cause it to thicken and may lead to discomfort upon injection. Choices A and D are correct statements as injecting insulin into the abdomen for faster absorption and rotating injection sites to prevent lipodystrophy are appropriate insulin administration techniques. Therefore, the client does not need further teaching on these aspects.

5. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the provider to explain the reason for the prescribed medication. What response is best for the provider to provide?

• A. To increase gastric motility.
• B. To decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery.
• C. To reduce secretions.
• D. To prevent nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atropine, an anticholinergic medication, is used preoperatively to prevent bradycardia by increasing the automaticity of the sinoatrial node during surgical anesthesia. Choice A is incorrect because atropine does not affect gastric motility. Choice C is incorrect as atropine is not primarily used to reduce secretions. Choice D is also incorrect because preventing nausea and vomiting is not the primary purpose of administering atropine in this context.

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