Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has returned from hemodialysis. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Weight gain of 1 pound.
• B. Dizziness.
• C. Fatigue.
• D. Muscle cramps.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After hemodialysis, muscle cramps can indicate an electrolyte imbalance, such as low potassium or magnesium levels, which requires immediate intervention to prevent potential complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Weight gain of 1 pound, dizziness, and fatigue are common post-hemodialysis symptoms that may not necessarily require immediate intervention unless they are severe or persisting.

2. A government office worker is seen in the emergency room after opening an envelope containing a powder-like substance which is being tested for anthrax. Which discharge instruction should the nurse provide the client concerning inhalation anthrax?

• A. return to the emergency room if flu-like symptoms develop within 42 days
• B. notify co-workers to get the anthrax vaccine at the public health department
• C. isolation from friends and family members is recommended for 3 weeks
• D. cleanse all surfaces touched with pre-moistened antibacterial wipes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to return to the emergency room if flu-like symptoms develop within 42 days. Flu-like symptoms can be an early sign of inhalation anthrax, and prompt medical intervention is crucial. Choice B is incorrect because the focus should be on the affected individual seeking medical attention rather than vaccinating others. Choice C is incorrect as isolation from friends and family members is not a standard recommendation for inhalation anthrax. Choice D is also incorrect as cleansing surfaces is important for infection control but may not be the priority when facing potential exposure to anthrax.

3. A primipara with a breech presentation is in the transition phase of labor. The nurse visualizes the perineum and sees the umbilical cord extruding from the introitus. In which position should the nurse place the client?

• A. Supine with the foot of the bed raised.
• B. On the left side with legs elevated.
• C. On the right side with legs elevated.
• D. Prone with head elevated.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a primipara with a breech presentation and a prolapsed umbilical cord, the nurse should place the client in the supine position with the foot of the bed raised (Trendelenburg position). This position helps alleviate gravitational pressure by the fetus on the cord, preventing compression and reducing the risk of cord prolapse complications. Placing the client on the left or right side with legs elevated or in a prone position with the head elevated would not be appropriate in this situation, as they do not effectively relieve the pressure on the umbilical cord.

4. A community health nurse is working with a local organization to address food insecurity. Which action should the nurse prioritize?

• A. organizing a food drive to collect non-perishable items
• B. creating a community garden to grow fresh produce
• C. establishing a weekly meal program for those in need
• D. partnering with local businesses to donate food

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is establishing a weekly meal program for those in need. This action prioritizes providing consistent and reliable access to food for individuals experiencing food insecurity. While organizing a food drive (Choice A) and partnering with local businesses to donate food (Choice D) are helpful, they may not offer a sustainable solution for ongoing food needs. Creating a community garden (Choice B) may promote self-sufficiency and access to fresh produce, but it may not address the immediate food needs of individuals who are food insecure. Therefore, establishing a weekly meal program is the most effective choice to ensure regular access to food for those in need.

5. During a 2-week postoperative follow-up home visit, a female client who had gastric bypass surgery exhibits abdominal tenderness, shoulder pain, and describes feelings of malaise. Her vital signs are: T 101.8, BP 100/50, HR 104, and RR 18. Which action should the RN take?

• A. have the client transported via ambulance to the hospital
• B. recheck the client's vital signs in 30 minutes
• C. instruct the client to drive to the hospital for admission
• D. assess the client's current symptoms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client is presenting with signs of a potential postoperative complication, such as fever, low blood pressure, and tachycardia, which could indicate sepsis or another serious issue. These symptoms require immediate hospital evaluation and management. Option B of rechecking vital signs in 30 minutes could delay crucial intervention in a potentially life-threatening situation. Option C is unsafe as the client should not drive herself due to her condition. Option D is vague and does not address the urgency of the situation.

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