HESI RN
Community Health HESI 2023
1. The client with liver cirrhosis needs immediate intervention for which abnormal laboratory result?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) of 14 seconds.
- B. Bilirubin of 1.2 mg/dL.
- C. Albumin of 4 g/dL.
- D. Ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL indicates hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication of liver cirrhosis that requires immediate intervention. Ammonia is a neurotoxin that accumulates in the blood due to impaired liver function, leading to cognitive impairment and altered mental status. Monitoring and lowering ammonia levels are crucial in managing hepatic encephalopathy to prevent further neurological deterioration. Prothrombin time, bilirubin, and albumin levels are important parameters in assessing liver function and overall health status in clients with liver cirrhosis, but an elevated ammonia level poses an immediate threat to neurological function and warrants prompt attention.
2. A 6-year-old child is alert but quiet when brought to the emergency center with periorbital ecchymosis and ecchymosis behind the ears. The nurse suspects potential child abuse and continues to assess the child for additional manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. What assessment finding would be consistent with the basilar skull fracture?
- A. Blurred vision.
- B. Shoulder pain.
- C. Abdominal pain.
- D. Rhinorrhea or otorrhea with halo sign.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Rhinorrhea or otorrhea with halo sign. Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) and Battle's sign (ecchymosis behind the ear) are signs of a basilar skull fracture, indicating the need to assess for possible meningeal tears that manifest as a halo sign with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage from the ears or nose. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because blurred vision, shoulder pain, and abdominal pain are not typically associated with a basilar skull fracture.
3. Which client has the highest risk for developing community-acquired pneumonia?
- A. a 40-year-old first-grade teacher who works with underprivileged children
- B. a 75-year-old retired secretary with exercise-induced wheezing
- C. a 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes
- D. a 35-year-old aerobics instructor who skips meals and eats only vegetables
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, a 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes. This client has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia due to multiple factors such as homelessness, substance abuse, and smoking. Homelessness can lead to poor living conditions and limited access to healthcare, increasing susceptibility to infections. Alcoholism and smoking weaken the immune system, making individuals more vulnerable to respiratory infections like pneumonia. Choices A, B, and D do not present the same level of risk factors for pneumonia compared to choice C.
4. During the physical assessment, which finding should the nurse recognize as a normal finding?
- A. Regular pulsation at the epigastric area when the client is supine.
- B. A loud, harsh murmur at the second right intercostal space.
- C. Dullness over the lung fields.
- D. Increased tactile fremitus.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The regular pulsation at the epigastric area when the client is supine is a normal finding. This phenomenon is caused by the regular and recurrent expansion and contraction of an artery due to waves of pressure caused by the ejection of blood from the left ventricle. Choices B, C, and D describe abnormal findings during a physical assessment. A loud, harsh murmur at the second right intercostal space indicates an abnormal heart sound, dullness over the lung fields may suggest consolidation or fluid in the lungs, and increased tactile fremitus can be a sign of lung consolidation or pathology.
5. A male client leaves his job at a nearby restaurant and visits the health clinic where he is diagnosed with viral conjunctivitis. While receiving discharge instructions from the nurse, the client states that he is feeling much better and plans to return to work for the afternoon shift. How should the nurse respond?
- A. advise the client to wear a face mask around other people
- B. ask the client what type of work he does at the restaurant
- C. instruct the client to use dark glasses if lighting is bright
- D. explain that the client should stay home for the next few days
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: explain that the client should stay home for the next few days. Viral conjunctivitis is highly contagious, and the client should avoid close contact with others until it resolves. Returning to work while still contagious can lead to the spread of the infection to coworkers and customers. Choice A is incorrect because wearing a face mask may not provide sufficient protection against spreading the virus in a close work environment. Choice B is irrelevant to the situation as the focus should be on the client's health and preventing the spread of the infection. Choice C is also unrelated to the management of viral conjunctivitis and does not address the contagious nature of the condition.
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