Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following findings should be reported immediately to the physician?

• A. Clear dialysate outflow.
• B. Increased blood pressure.
• C. Cloudy dialysate outflow.
• D. Decreased urine output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow should be reported immediately to the physician. It is indicative of peritonitis, a severe infection of the peritoneal cavity and a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis. Prompt medical attention is crucial to prevent further complications or systemic infection. Clear dialysate outflow (Choice A) is a normal finding in peritoneal dialysis. Increased blood pressure (Choice B) and decreased urine output (Choice D) are common in clients with chronic renal failure and may not require immediate reporting unless they are significantly abnormal or accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

2. After checking the client’s gag reflex following an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD), which action should the nurse take?

• A. Taking the client’s vital signs
• B. Giving the client a drink of water
• C. Monitoring the client for a sore throat
• D. Being alert to complaints of heartburn

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD), the nurse's priority is to assess the client's airway by checking the gag reflex. Once this assessment is done, the next step is to take the client's vital signs to monitor for any signs of complications such as bleeding or changes in respiratory status. Giving the client water immediately after the procedure may not be appropriate, as the client may still have a compromised gag reflex and is at risk for aspiration. Monitoring for a sore throat is important but not the immediate priority post-procedure. Being alert to complaints of heartburn is relevant for assessing the client's symptoms but is not the priority immediately after checking the gag reflex.

3. A client with chronic renal failure is being treated with sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following?

• A. Hyponatremia.
• B. Hypokalemia.
• C. Hyperkalemia.
• D. Hypocalcemia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyperkalemia. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is used to treat high potassium levels (hyperkalemia) by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine, which is then eliminated through the feces. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for changes in potassium levels to ensure the effectiveness of the treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is not associated with causing hyponatremia, hypokalemia, or hypocalcemia.

4. The patient is receiving a high dose of tetracycline (Sumycin). Which laboratory values should the nurse monitor while caring for this patient?

• A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
• B. Complete blood counts
• C. Electrolytes
• D. Liver enzyme levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: High doses of tetracyclines can lead to nephrotoxicity, especially when given along with other nephrotoxic drugs. Renal function tests, such as monitoring blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels, should be performed to assess for nephrotoxicity. Monitoring complete blood counts (choice B) is not directly related to tetracycline therapy. Checking electrolytes (choice C) is important but not the priority when monitoring for tetracycline-induced nephrotoxicity. Monitoring liver enzyme levels (choice D) is not typically indicated in the context of tetracycline therapy.

5. A patient has a serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. The patient’s provider has determined that the patient will need 200 mEq of potassium to replace serum losses. How will the nurse caring for this patient expect to administer the potassium?

• A. As a single-dose 200 mEq oral tablet
• B. As an intravenous bolus over 15 to 20 minutes
• C. In an intravenous solution at a rate of 10 mEq/hour
• D. In an intravenous solution at a rate of 45 mEq/hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a patient with severe hypokalemia with a serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L requiring 200 mEq of potassium replacement, the appropriate route of administration would be intravenous. Potassium chloride should be administered slowly to prevent adverse effects; therefore, the correct option is to administer the potassium in an intravenous solution at a rate of 10 mEq/hour. Choices A and B are incorrect because potassium should not be given as a single-dose oral tablet or as an intravenous bolus over a short period of time due to the risk of adverse effects. Choice D is also incorrect as the rate of 45 mEq/hour exceeds the recommended maximum infusion rate for adults with a serum potassium level greater than 2.5 mEq/L, which is 10 mEq/hour.

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