HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following findings should be reported immediately to the physician?
- A. Clear dialysate outflow.
- B. Increased blood pressure.
- C. Cloudy dialysate outflow.
- D. Decreased urine output.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow should be reported immediately to the physician. It is indicative of peritonitis, a severe infection of the peritoneal cavity and a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis. Prompt medical attention is crucial to prevent further complications or systemic infection. Clear dialysate outflow (Choice A) is a normal finding in peritoneal dialysis. Increased blood pressure (Choice B) and decreased urine output (Choice D) are common in clients with chronic renal failure and may not require immediate reporting unless they are significantly abnormal or accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
2. The client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left lower leg is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following assessments is the most important for the nurse to perform?
- A. Measure the circumference of the left leg.
- B. Assess for signs of bleeding, such as bruising or hematuria.
- C. Monitor the client's vital signs.
- D. Monitor the client's respiratory status.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important assessment for a client with DVT on heparin therapy is to monitor for signs of bleeding, such as bruising or hematuria. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that can increase the risk of bleeding. Assessing for bleeding is crucial to prevent complications like hemorrhage. Measuring the circumference of the leg may be relevant for assessing for edema but is not as critical as monitoring for bleeding. Monitoring vital signs and respiratory status are important aspects of care but are not the priority when the client is on heparin therapy for DVT.
3. The patient is taking low-dose erythromycin prophylactically and will start cefaclor for treating an acute infection. The nurse should discuss this with the provider because taking both medications simultaneously can cause which effect?
- A. Decreased effectiveness of cefaclor.
- B. Increased effectiveness of cefaclor.
- C. Decreased effectiveness of erythromycin.
- D. Increased effectiveness of erythromycin.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When erythromycin and cefaclor are taken together, erythromycin can inhibit the metabolism of cefaclor, leading to elevated cefaclor levels and potentially causing adverse effects. This results in a decrease in the effectiveness of cefaclor. Therefore, the nurse should discuss this potential drug interaction with the provider to consider an alternative treatment or adjust the dosages to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the concern lies with the effect on cefaclor when combined with erythromycin, not the effect on erythromycin itself.
4. In a patient with cirrhosis, which of the following lab results is most concerning?
- A. Elevated liver enzymes.
- B. Low albumin levels.
- C. Elevated bilirubin levels.
- D. Low platelet count.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a patient with cirrhosis, a low platelet count is the most concerning lab result. Thrombocytopenia, or low platelet count, is common in cirrhosis due to impaired platelet production in the liver. It significantly increases the risk of bleeding and can lead to serious complications such as hemorrhage. Elevated liver enzymes (Choice A) are expected in cirrhosis but may not directly indicate the severity of the disease. Low albumin levels (Choice B) are common in cirrhosis and can contribute to fluid retention but do not pose an immediate risk of bleeding. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice C) are also expected in cirrhosis and typically indicate impaired liver function but do not directly increase the risk of bleeding as much as a low platelet count.
5. A postmenopausal client asks the nurse why she is experiencing discomfort during intercourse. What response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Estrogen deficiency causes the vaginal tissues to become dry and thinner.
- B. Infrequent intercourse results in the vaginal tissues losing their elasticity.
- C. Dehydration from inadequate fluid intake causes vulva tissue dryness.
- D. Lack of adequate stimulation is the most common reason for dyspareunia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Estrogen deficiency in postmenopausal clients leads to a decrease in the moisture-secreting capacity of vaginal cells. This results in vaginal tissues becoming thinner, drier, and smoother, which reduces vaginal stretching and contributes to discomfort during intercourse. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for discomfort is not infrequent intercourse but rather physiological changes due to estrogen deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration may cause dryness but is not the primary reason for discomfort in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as lack of stimulation is not the most common reason for dyspareunia in postmenopausal clients; estrogen deficiency is the key factor.
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