Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic renal failure who is on a low-potassium diet. Which of the following foods should the client avoid?

• A. Bananas
• B. Potatoes
• C. Rice
• D. Apples

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bananas are high in potassium content, which can lead to hyperkalemia in clients with chronic renal failure who are on a low-potassium diet. Therefore, it is crucial for these clients to avoid bananas. Potatoes, rice, and apples are lower in potassium compared to bananas and are generally considered safe for consumption in clients with chronic renal failure on a low-potassium diet.

2. A client is brought to the emergency department by a neighbor. The client is lethargic and has a fruity odor on the breath. The client’s arterial blood gas (ABG) results are pH 7.25, PCO2 34 mm Hg, PO2 86 mm Hg, HCO3 14 mEq/L. Which of the following acid-base disturbances does the nurse recognize in these results?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Metabolic acidosis.' Metabolic acidosis is characterized by a low pH (<7.35) and a low bicarbonate level (HCO3 <22 mEq/L). In this case, the client's ABG results show a pH of 7.25 and an HCO3 level of 14 mEq/L, indicating metabolic acidosis. The PCO2 of 34 mm Hg is normal, ruling out respiratory acidosis or alkalosis. The PO2 of 86 mm Hg is also within the normal range and is not indicative of a respiratory problem. Therefore, the client is experiencing metabolic acidosis based on the ABG results provided.

3. A nurse is assessing the chest tube drainage system of a postoperative client who has undergone a right upper lobectomy. The closed drainage system contains 300 mL of bloody drainage, and the nurse notes intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber. One hour after the initial assessment, the nurse notes that the bubbling in the water seal chamber is now constant, and the client appears dyspneic. On the basis of these findings, the nurse should first assess:

• A. The client’s vital signs
• B. The amount of drainage
• C. The client’s lung sounds
• D. The chest tube connections

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client’s dyspnea is most likely related to an air leak caused by a loose connection in the chest tube system. Checking the chest tube connections should be the initial action because correcting an air leak can quickly resolve the client's symptoms. If a leak is found and corrected, the dyspnea should improve. Assessing the client’s vital signs (Option A) is important, but addressing the potential cause of dyspnea takes precedence. Monitoring the amount of drainage (Option B) is necessary for assessing the client's overall condition, but in this case, the dyspnea is likely due to an air leak. Checking the client’s lung sounds (Option C) is essential for respiratory assessment, but addressing the air leak should be the immediate priority to ensure adequate lung expansion and oxygenation.

4. The best indicator that the client has learned how to give an insulin self-injection correctly is when the client can:

• A. Perform the procedure safely and correctly.
• B. Critique the nurse's performance of the procedure.
• C. Explain all steps of the procedure correctly.
• D. Correctly answer a post-test about the procedure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best indicator of learning is the ability to perform the procedure safely and correctly, demonstrating skill acquisition. Choice A is correct because the client's ability to perform the insulin self-injection safely and correctly shows practical understanding and application of the skill. Choice B is incorrect because critiquing the nurse's performance does not necessarily demonstrate the client's ability to carry out the procedure themselves. Choice C is incorrect as merely explaining the steps verbally does not confirm the client's practical execution of the task. Choice D is also incorrect as answering a post-test does not directly assess the client's ability to physically perform the insulin self-injection.

5. To evaluate the positive effect of furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg/day in a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD), what is the best action for the nurse to take?

• A. Obtain daily weights of the client.
• B. Auscultate heart and breath sounds.
• C. Palpate the client’s abdomen.
• D. Assess the client’s diet history.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic used to manage fluid overload and hypertension in clients with CKD. Monitoring daily weights is crucial as weight changes reflect fluid status. Each kilogram of weight change approximately corresponds to 1 liter of fluid retention or loss, making it essential for evaluating the medication's effectiveness. Auscultating heart and breath sounds is more relevant for heart failure cases with fluid retention, not specifically for assessing the effect of furosemide in CKD. Palpating the abdomen is not a direct indicator of furosemide's effectiveness; instead, assessing for edema would be appropriate. While assessing the client's diet history is important to monitor electrolyte balance due to potassium loss with furosemide, it does not directly evaluate the medication's efficacy.

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