HESI RN
Pediatric HESI
1. In a hospitalized child receiving IV fluids for dehydration, what is the best indicator that the child’s dehydration is improving?
- A. The child’s urine output increases
- B. The child’s skin turgor is normal
- C. The child’s weight increases
- D. The child’s vital signs are stable
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An increase in urine output is a reliable indicator of improving dehydration in a child. It signifies that the kidneys are functioning better, helping to restore fluid balance in the body. Monitoring urine output is crucial in assessing hydration status and response to treatment. Choices B, C, and D are not the best indicators of improving dehydration. Normal skin turgor is helpful but may not change immediately with improving hydration. Weight increase may reflect retained fluids rather than improved hydration status. Stable vital signs are important but may not always indicate improving dehydration.
2. A client with diabetes mellitus is being educated on the importance of foot care. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Soak your feet daily to maintain cleanliness.
- B. Wear tight-fitting shoes to protect your feet.
- C. Apply lotion between your toes to prevent dryness.
- D. Inspect your feet daily for any cuts or sores.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to inspect their feet daily for any cuts or sores. This is crucial for individuals with diabetes as they are at a higher risk of developing foot problems. Soaking feet daily can lead to skin breakdown and infections, making choice A incorrect. Tight-fitting shoes can cause pressure points and increase the risk of foot injuries, so choice B is incorrect. Applying lotion between the toes can create a moist environment, increasing the risk of fungal infections, making choice C incorrect.
3. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Increased fatigue
- B. Elevated blood pressure
- C. Low urine output
- D. Elevated hemoglobin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, an elevated blood pressure is the most concerning assessment finding. Elevated blood pressure can indicate worsening hypertension, which requires immediate intervention. Increased fatigue may be expected due to anemia associated with CKD and erythropoietin therapy. Low urine output may indicate impaired kidney function but is not as immediately concerning as elevated blood pressure. Elevated hemoglobin levels are the desired outcome of erythropoietin therapy, indicating an appropriate response to treatment.
4. What term is used to refer to the fertilized ovum?
- A. Zygote
- B. Embryo
- C. Foetus
- D. Pregnancy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Zygote. A zygote is formed when a sperm cell fertilizes an egg cell. It is the initial stage of prenatal development. Choice B, Embryo, refers to the stage of prenatal development after the zygote and before the foetus. Choice C, Foetus, is the stage of prenatal development after the embryo. Choice D, Pregnancy, is a broader term referring to the condition of having a developing baby in the uterus.
5. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed radioactive iodine therapy. The nurse should monitor for which of the following potential side effects?
- A. Hypothyroidism
- B. Hyperthyroidism
- C. Hypercalcemia
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with hyperthyroidism undergoes radioactive iodine therapy, the treatment aims to reduce thyroid hormone production by destroying thyroid tissue. As a result, there is a high likelihood of developing hypothyroidism as a side effect. Monitoring for hypothyroidism is crucial post-treatment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the therapeutic goal is to address hyperthyroidism by inducing hypothyroidism through the treatment.