HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam
1. The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. Which outcome is the priority for this child?
- A. Activity tolerance as evidenced by appropriate age-level activities being performed
- B. Absence of skin breakdown as evidenced by intact skin and absence of redness
- C. Maintaining adequate nutritional status as evidenced by stable weight without gain or loss
- D. Maintaining fluid balance as evidenced by a urine output of 1 to 2 ml/kg/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In acute glomerulonephritis, maintaining fluid balance is the priority to prevent complications like fluid overload or dehydration. Monitoring urine output within the range of 1 to 2 ml/kg/hr is crucial in assessing renal function. While activity tolerance, skin integrity, and nutritional status are important aspects of care, fluid balance takes precedence due to its direct impact on the renal condition and overall health outcome for the child.
2. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) asks the nurse how the medication works. What explanation should the nurse provide?
- A. It dissolves blood clots
- B. It prevents the blood from clotting
- C. It thins the blood
- D. It decreases the risk of infection
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It prevents the blood from clotting.' Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots but prevents new ones from forming. Choice C is partially correct but not as specific as choice B in explaining how warfarin works. Choice D is unrelated to the mechanism of action of warfarin and is incorrect.
3. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when planning care for a client in cardiogenic shock?
- A. Risk for imbalanced body temperature
- B. Excess fluid volume
- C. Fatigue
- D. Ineffective Tissue Perfusion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In cardiogenic shock, the priority nursing diagnosis is Ineffective Tissue Perfusion. This diagnosis indicates that the client is not receiving adequate oxygenated blood to tissues, putting vital organs at risk. Addressing ineffective tissue perfusion is crucial to prevent organ damage and ensure the client's survival. The other options, such as 'Risk for imbalanced body temperature,' 'Excess fluid volume,' and 'Fatigue,' are important but secondary to the immediate threat of inadequate tissue perfusion in cardiogenic shock.
4. A nurse is planning care for a client who is newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client’s teaching plan?
- A. Avoid all forms of sugar
- B. Check blood glucose levels once a week
- C. Rotate insulin injection sites
- D. Monitor urine ketone levels
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Rotating insulin injection sites prevents lipodystrophy and ensures proper insulin absorption.
5. A 20-year-old female client tells the nurse that her menstrual periods occur about every 28 days, and her breasts are quite tender when her menstrual flow is heavy. She also states that she performs her breast self-examination (BSE) on the first day of every month. What action should the nurse implement in response to the client's statements?
- A. Remind the client that it is also important to schedule an annual mammogram
- B. Refer the client to a nurse practitioner for an in-depth review of the BSE procedure
- C. Encourage the client to perform BSE 2 to 3 days after the menstrual period ends
- D. Instruct the client to continue with her regular monthly exams as she is doing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is to encourage the client to perform breast self-examination (BSE) 2 to 3 days after her menstrual period ends. This timing is important because breasts are least tender during this phase of the menstrual cycle, allowing for a more effective examination. Choice A is incorrect because while scheduling an annual mammogram is important, the immediate concern is the timing of BSE. Choice B is incorrect as the client's BSE practice just needs a slight adjustment in timing, not an in-depth review. Choice D is incorrect as the client should perform BSE when her breasts are least tender for optimal detection of any abnormalities.
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