HESI RN
HESI Pediatrics Practice Exam
1. The healthcare provider is evaluating diet teaching for a client who has nontropical sprue (celiac disease). Choosing which food indicates that the teaching has been effective?
- A. Creamed corn.
- B. Pancakes.
- C. Rye crackers.
- D. Cooked oatmeal.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Creamed corn is a gluten-free food, making it a suitable option for clients with celiac disease. This choice indicates effective diet teaching as it aligns with the dietary restrictions necessary for managing the condition. Pancakes, rye crackers, and cooked oatmeal contain gluten, which is harmful to individuals with celiac disease. Therefore, they are not suitable choices and would not indicate effective teaching for a client with this condition.
2. Which of the following symptoms would a healthcare provider expect to find in a patient with hyperkalemia?
- A. Muscle cramps.
- B. Hypertension.
- C. Bradycardia.
- D. Tachycardia.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Tachycardia is the correct symptom to expect in a patient with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia, or high potassium levels in the blood, can affect the electrical activity of the heart. Increased potassium levels can lead to changes in the heart's rhythm, potentially causing tachycardia (rapid heart rate) or other cardiac arrhythmias. Muscle cramps (choice A) are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Hypertension (choice B) is not a common symptom of hyperkalemia; in fact, high potassium levels can sometimes cause low blood pressure. Bradycardia (choice C), or a slow heart rate, is usually not a primary symptom of hyperkalemia; instead, hyperkalemia tends to be associated with faster heart rates or arrhythmias.
3. A father watching the admission of his newborn to the nursery notices that eye ointment is placed in the infant's eyes. He asks what is the purpose of the ointment. The nurse would be correct in stating that the purpose of the ointment is:
- A. Prevent eye infection.
- B. Dilate the pupil so the red reflex can be visualized.
- C. Clear the infant's vision.
- D. Prevent herpes infection.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prevent eye infection. Eye ointment, usually containing erythromycin, is applied to prevent neonatal conjunctivitis, which can be caused by bacteria present in the birth canal. It is not used to dilate the pupil, clear the infant's vision, or prevent herpes infection.
4. The nurse is assisting the mother of a child with phenylketonuria (PKU) to select foods that are in keeping with the child's dietary restrictions. Which foods are contraindicated for this child?
- A. Wheat products
- B. Foods sweetened with aspartame
- C. High-fat foods
- D. High-calorie foods
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Foods sweetened with aspartame. Aspartame should not be consumed by a child with PKU because it is converted to phenylalanine in the body, which can be harmful to individuals with PKU. Choice A (Wheat products) is not specifically contraindicated for PKU. Choice C (High-fat foods) and Choice D (High-calorie foods) are not typically restricted in PKU diets unless they contain high levels of phenylalanine.
5. A client is being maintained on heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis. The nurse must closely monitor which of the following laboratory values?
- A. Bleeding time
- B. Platelet count
- C. Activated PTT
- D. Clotting time
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Activated PTT is the correct lab value to monitor for clients on heparin therapy. Activated PTT (partial thromboplastin time) helps assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy by measuring the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring activated PTT ensures that the client is within the therapeutic range of heparin to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications. Bleeding time (Choice A) and platelet count (Choice B) are not specific indicators of heparin therapy effectiveness. Clotting time (Choice D) is not as sensitive as activated PTT in monitoring heparin therapy.